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Old Feb 20, '12, 5:23 pm
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Default Re: Is the bible inerrant?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Marie_Gregg View Post
Been gone for a few days...

I don't know how to do mutli-quote, so let me just say that I track with you right up until you say that the formation of the Jewish canon, in response to the rise of Christianity, was biased toward a rejection of Jesus. I'd say that we'd have a huge problem if this is true. All of the OT passages quoted in the NT are available for us to read today. So, either the NT writers also (and I hate to even use this word) manipulated the OT text to their own ends or the Holy Spirit was indeed involved in the Jewish formation of the OT.

You are totally right in saying that this isn't about Christians vs. Jews. I for one wish that all Christians would be taught to appreciate their Jewish roots.
The Jewish canon occurred in the time frame that surrounds Christ. I fail to see how it could not have been affected by their rejection of Jesus, since all scripture, in some way, points to Him. Some Jews still do not hold to the prophets. Judaism is not as fractured as Christianity, but it is fractured. As well, all writings in the Catholic canon have been in use since the first days of the Church. Not all were in all areas of the Church - simply because it was the ancient world, but all were in use. I hear far better arguments for their inclusion than I do for their exclusion.
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