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  #16  
Old Aug 11, '12, 10:29 am
anonymous123abc anonymous123abc is offline
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Default Re: Understanding Papal Infallibility

I also found the following information from Wikipedia - Papal infallibility http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Papal_infallibility to be helpful

Quote:
Instances of infallible declarations

The Catholic Church does not teach that the pope is infallible in everything he says; official invocation of papal infallibility is extremely rare.

Catholic theologians agree that both Pope Pius IX's 1854 definition of the dogma of the Immaculate Conception of Mary and Pope Pius XII's 1950 definition of the dogma of the Assumption of Mary are instances of papal infallibility, a fact which has been confirmed by the Church's magisterium.[66] However, theologians disagree about what other documents qualify.

Regarding historical papal documents, Catholic theologian and church historian Klaus Schatz made a thorough study, published in 1985, that identified the following list of ex cathedra documents (see Creative Fidelity: Weighing and Interpreting Documents of the Magisterium, by Francis A. Sullivan, chapter 6):

1. "Tome to Flavian", Pope Leo I, 449, on the two natures in Christ, received by the Council of Chalcedon;
2. Letter of Pope Agatho, 680, on the two wills of Christ, received by the Third Council of Constantinople;
3. Benedictus Deus, Pope Benedict XII, 1336, on the beatific vision of the just prior to final judgment;
4. Cum occasione, Pope Innocent X, 1653, condemning five propositions of Jansen as heretical;
5. Auctorem fidei, Pope Pius VI, 1794, condemning seven Jansenist propositions of the Synod of Pistoia as heretical;
6. Ineffabilis Deus, Pope Pius IX, 1854, defining the Immaculate Conception;
7. Munificentissimus Deus, Pope Pius XII, 1950, defining the Assumption of Mary.

The Holy See has given no complete list of papal statements considered to be infallible. A 1998 commentary on Ad Tuendam Fidem issued by the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith published on L'Osservatore Romano in July 1998[67] listed a number of instances of infallible pronouncements by popes and by ecumenical councils, but explicitly stated (at no. 11) that this was not meant to be a complete list.

One of the documents mentioned is Pope John Paul II's apostolic letter Ordinatio Sacerdotalis on reserving priestly ordination to men alone,[68] which the Congregation earlier stated to be infallible, although not taught ex cathedra (i.e., although not a teaching of the extraordinary magisterium), clarifying that the content of this letter has been taught infallibly by the ordinary and universal magisterium.[69] This was confirmed in a commentary by the same Congregation[67] and in commentaries by Cardinals Joseph Ratzinger[70] and Tarcisio Bertone.[71]

As well as popes, ecumenical councils have made pronouncements that the Church considers infallible.
Also, this thread on Does Papal bull = Ex Cathedra http://forums.catholic.com/showthread.php?t=308582 especially post #25 http://forums.catholic.com/showpost....7&postcount=25 and #28 http://forums.catholic.com/showpost....9&postcount=28
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  #17  
Old Aug 15, '12, 7:32 am
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MarcoPolo MarcoPolo is offline
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Default Re: Understanding Papal Infallibility

Quote:
Originally Posted by PJD1987 View Post
Okay, I did not read that quote correctly when I first read the OP. I still reserve judgment as more context would be needed to make a final decision on that. But as a stand alone statement that is indeed what it seems to indicate. I tend to believe the Holy Father would not have made such a bold statement, and if he uttered something similar, the more extreme Ultramontanists probably would have used it to support the minority held claim maybe of impeccability vs infallibility. Also one cannot exclude the possibility of this arising as a myth of the anti-Catholic French or Italians during the Unification.

God bless.

-Paul
I tend to agree - either more context is needed to see how the Ultramontanists were using the statement, or perhaps they were simply advancing a myth. Either way, the comment doesn't qualify as an "infallible" statement by any stretch.
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