Originally Posted by JKirkLVNV
How, precisely, do you know what you assert is true?
“Though we are faithless,
He Remains faithful,
For He cannot disown Himself.”(2 Timothy2.13).
Is Baptism necessary for salvation?
Answer: Baptismal regeneration is the belief that a person must be
baptized in order to be saved. It is our contention that baptism is an
important step of obedience for a Christian, but we adamantly reject
baptism as being required for salvation. We strongly believe that each and
every Christian should be water baptized by immersion. Baptism illustrates
a believer's identification with Christ's death, burial, and resurrection.
Romans 6:3-4 declares, 'Or don't you know that all of us who were baptized
into Christ Jesus were baptized into His death? We were therefore buried
with Him through baptism into death in order that, just as Christ was
raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, we too may live a
new life.?' The action of being immersed in the water illustrates being
buried with Christ. The action of coming out of the water pictures
Anything in addition to faith in Jesus Christ as being required for
salvation is a works-based salvation. To add ANYTHING to the Gospel is to
say that Jesus' death on the cross was not sufficient to purchase our
salvation. To say that we must be baptized in order to be saved is to say
that we must add our own good works and obedience to Christ's death in
order to make it sufficient for salvation. Jesus' death alone paid for our
sins (Romans 5:8; 2 Corinthians 5:21). Jesus' payment for our sins is
appropriated to our "account" by faith alone (John 3:16; Acts 16:31;
Ephesians 2:8-9). Therefore, baptism is an important step of obedience
after salvation, but cannot a requirement for salvation.
Yes, there are some verses that seem to indicate baptism as a necessary
requirement for salvation. However, since the Bible so clearly tells us
that salvation is received by faith alone (John 3:16; Ephesians 2:8-9;
Titus 3:5), there must be a different interpretation of those verses.
Scripture does not contradict Scripture. In Bible times, a person who
converted from one religion to another was often baptized to identify
conversion. Baptism was the means of making a decision public. Those who
refused to be baptized were saying they did not truly believe. So, in the
minds of the apostles and early disciples, the idea of an un-baptized
believer was unheard of. When a person claimed to believe in Christ, yet
was ashamed to proclaim his faith in public, it indicated that he did not
have true faith.
If baptism is necessary for salvation, why would Paul have said, "I am
thankful that I did not baptize any of you except Crispus and Gaius" (1Corinthians 1:14)? Why would he have said, "For Christ did not send me to
baptize, but to preach the gospel - not with words of human wisdom, lest
the cross of Christ be emptied of its power" (1 Corinthians 1:17)?
Granted, in this passage Paul is arguing against the divisions that
plagued the Corinthians church. However, how could Paul possibly say,"I
am thankful that I did not baptize??" or "For Christ did not send me to
baptize" if baptism was necessary for salvation? If baptism is necessary
for salvation, Paul would literally be saying, 'I am thankful that you
were not saved' and 'For Christ did not send me to save'? That would be
an unbelievably ridiculous statement for Paul to make. Further, when Paul
gives a detailed outline of what he considers the Gospel (1 Corinthians
15:1-8), why does he neglect to mention baptism? If baptism is a
requirement for salvation, how could any presentation of the Gospel lack a
mentioning of baptism?
[baptism-Acts-2-38.html] Does Acts 2:38 teach that baptism is necessary
[baptism-Mark-16-16.html] Does Mark 16:16 teach that baptism is necessary
[baptism-1Peter-3-21.html] Does 1 Peter 3:21 teach that baptism is
necessary for salvation?
Does John 3:5 teach that baptism is necessary for
what do you think?