why is Jesus called the "Son of Man"?

[HeWillProvide]

Why is Man capitalized? Why is he called the son of Man? Isn't he the son of God?

[smichhertz]

Originally Posted by HeWillProvide

Why is Man capitalized? Why is he called the son of Man? Isn't he the son of God?

Hi HeWillProvide!

Jesus is both "son of man" and "son of God" as He is the union of both God and man. Technically speaking, Jesus isn't "called" this. He refers to himself by this title more than any other. In fact, with the exception of one reference in Acts, only Jesus calls himself the son of man.

Scholars have many different reasons as to why He does this. I think Pope Benedict XVI does the best job in his book Jesus of Nazareth of explaining it. Simply put, Jesus did this as a subtle foreshadowing of his death, resurrection and second coming. The title was used throughout Jewish scripture in various ways to foreshadow Jesus. However, the phrase is also broad enough where it doesn't necessarily mean messiah. Jesus probably did this as a way of both disguising and subtly revealing Himself as the Son of God and the one true Messiah.

One can imagine that if Jesus were to at the beginning just go around claiming to be the Messiah, it would have been too much for the Jews to accept. Perhaps this is why He waited until later in his ministry to reveal His identity as the Messiah.

Hope that helps!

[jomoco]

Might be that Jesus sleeps and can be awakened in the mind of every man who believes in His Truth and Sovereignty?

I mean, it might certainly be possible, mightn't it?

jomoco

[JonathonofOhio]

It is an idiom. It is used to show that Jesus was fully human; it appeals to his human nature. He is also called Son of God, of course, and this shows that Jesus was also God.

[Joe 5859]

First, the capitalization is just convention. I'm fairly certain the ancient Jews did not utilize capitalization the way we 21st century English speakers do.

The title "Son of Man" also as messianic implications as it alludes to the Book of Daniel. Look at the Old Catholic Encyclopedia article on Son of Man:

http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/14144a.htm

[John Russell Jr]

... mu dear friend ,,,

... i'm not disputing other replies which are quite good , but " man " is adam , and eve , together they form one full man and scripture says as much , jesus is the new adam and this new adam , and this will sound controversial , is like the first adam before the femininity was taken out of him with a rib to form eve the woman ,,, son of man refers to jesus being the son of adam and eve and the new adam before eve was taken out of adam in the beginning as said ,,, it is like an acknowledgement that jesus is the son of man -- the first man adam -- son of adam you can say , it is a reference to his role as the new adam , sent to make it possible to get reality or the garden of eden back ultimately , along with many other things we know ,,,

... may god bless and love you ,,,

... john ...

[jomoco]

Originally Posted by John Russell Jr

... mu dear friend ,,,

... i'm not disputing other replies which are quite good , but " man " is adam , and eve , together they form one full man and scripture says as much , jesus is the new adam and this new adam , and this will sound controversial , is like the first adam before the femininity was taken out of him with a rib to form eve the woman ,,, son of man refers to jesus being the son of adam and eve and the new adam before eve was taken out of adam in the beginning as said ,,, it is like an acknowledgement that jesus is the son of man -- the first man adam -- son of adam you can say , it is a reference to his role as the new adam , sent to make it possible to get reality or the garden of eden back ultimately , along with many other things we know ,,,

... may god bless and love you ,,,

... john ...

Nicely said Mate!

jomoco

[TimothyH]

Originally Posted by Joe 5859

The title "Son of Man" also as messianic implications as it alludes to the Book of Daniel. Look at the Old Catholic Encyclopedia article on Son of Man:

http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/14144a.htm

It does more than just allude. It is a clear reference to the prophecy of Daniel

As I watched, Thrones were set up and the Ancient One took his throne. His clothing was snow bright, and the hair on his head as white as wool; His throne was flames of fire, with wheels of burning fire. A surging stream of fire flowed out from where he sat; Thousands upon thousands were ministering to him, and myriads upon myriads attended him. The court was convened, and the books were opened. ... As the visions during the night continued, I saw One like a son of man coming, on the clouds of heaven; When he reached the Ancient One and was presented before him, He received dominion, glory, and kingship; nations and peoples of every language serve him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that shall not be taken away, his kingship shall not be destroyed. (Daniel 7:9-10,13-14)

As a nation, Israel was highly literate and most people were very familiar with the teachings of the law and with the writings of the prophets. Jesus reference to himself as "Son of Man" would have been reconizable to the Jews as a clear statement of divinely granted kingship.


-Tim-

[Swiss Guy]

Originally Posted by HeWillProvide

Why is Man capitalized? Why is he called the son of Man? Isn't he the son of God?

IDK why man is capitalized (it isn't always), but he is both the Son of God and Son of man. True God and true man. Son of man - was born of the Virgin Mary, Son of God only begotten son of God.

[GEddie]

Originally Posted by Joe 5859

First, the capitalization is just convention. I'm fairly certain the ancient Jews did not utilize capitalization the way we 21st century English speakers do.

The title "Son of Man" also as messianic implications as it alludes to the Book of Daniel. Look at the Old Catholic Encyclopedia article on Son of Man:

http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/14144a.htm

It is true, Hebrew has no capitals (or punctutation, or vowels)

AIUI, "Son of Man" is simply a Hebrew idiom for "human being." It is used that way several times in the OT.

Our LORD was a fully human being.

ICXC NIKA.

[Frankenfurter]

By referencing Daniel, Jesus claims the authority of the one prophesied. It is important to realize the Jesus refers to himself this way. Jesus is making the connection to Daniel and the people would have understood it that way.

[Jerome81]

Originally Posted by GEddie

It is true, Hebrew has no capitals (or punctutation, or vowels)

AIUI, "Son of Man" is simply a Hebrew idiom for "human being." It is used that way several times in the OT.

Our LORD was a fully human being.

ICXC NIKA.

The Son of Man means more than Just that Jesus was a Human being,

Daniel 7:13-14 (RSV-CE)

13 I saw in the night visions,
and behold, with the clouds of heaven
there came one like a son of man,
and he came to the Ancient of Days
and was presented before him.
14 And to him was given dominion
and glory and kingdom,
that all peoples, nations, and languages
should serve him;
his dominion is an everlasting dominion,
which shall not pass away,
and his kingdom one
that shall not be destroyed.

Jesus is applying this title ''Son of Man'' to himself because he is the Messianic figure from Daniel's Vision, Who will come at the time when the forth beast (Rome) is world ruler. He came to usher in and renew the Kingdom which is the fulfilment of the Davidic Kingdom which was supposed to last forever (2 Sam 7:12-14, Lk 1:32-33). Matthew proves in his first chapter (Matt 1:1-17) that God preserved the Davidic lineage even though it looked as though it had ended. All the prophets prophesied about a time when a Davidic ''Branch'' would come from the stump of the Davidic tree which had been cut down, but not totally destroyed (Isaiah 11, Jer 23) to rebuild the ruins of the Davidic kingdom which had fallen (Amos 9:11) This Davidic figure would also be like a New Moses who would lead a new exodus, (Jer 16:14-16, Jer 23, Is 11, Is 43 etc) this new exodus would not be from Egypt, but would involve the ingathering and reunification of the lost tribes of Israel through the Church (This is why he chooses 12 apostles to rule over the 12 tribes Matt 19:28, Lk 22:28-31)

first Jesus establishes this new kingdom then he ascends on the clouds to his Father (The Aincient of Days) in the ascension. where he sits down to rule as King while his apostles go out into the world as fishermen (Jer 16:14-16) to ''Catch men'' (Lk 5:10) into the Net of the Church (Jn 21:1-11) Which should not be torn (Gk Schizo), This is precisely why I am Catholic, because this is the only possible way this can be fulfilled, one net for all the fish from all the tribes and nations, one flock, one faith, one baptism, and we are witnessing this all unfold before our very eyes every time we go to mass and see Jesus ''drawing all men to himself'' (John 12:32), through the cross, the tree of life, the Eucharist. In his cd entitled ''The Last supper and the Lost tribes'' Dr Brant Pitre says: ''Think about the number of people who have taken the eucharist, since the last supper.......BILLIONS!!''

Daniel 7 says ' to the Son of Man was given dominion
and glory and kingdom,
that all peoples, nations, and languages
should serve him;
his dominion is an everlasting dominion,
which shall not pass away,
and his kingdom one
that shall not be destroyed.

This is why Jesus calls himself ''Son of Man'' in Matt 8:20, also, Just 9 verses earlier in Matt 8:11 he says, Many will come from east and west and SIT AT TABLE IN THE KINGDOM with Abraham Isaac and Jacob.

[Sam_777]

Originally Posted by TimothyH

It does more than just allude. It is a clear reference to the prophecy of Daniel

As I watched, Thrones were set up and the Ancient One took his throne. His clothing was snow bright, and the hair on his head as white as wool; His throne was flames of fire, with wheels of burning fire. A surging stream of fire flowed out from where he sat; Thousands upon thousands were ministering to him, and myriads upon myriads attended him. The court was convened, and the books were opened. ... As the visions during the night continued, I saw One like a son of man coming, on the clouds of heaven; When he reached the Ancient One and was presented before him, He received dominion, glory, and kingship; nations and peoples of every language serve him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that shall not be taken away, his kingship shall not be destroyed. (Daniel 7:9-10,13-14)

-

[Khalid]

Son of Man comes from Daniel's prophecies.

It also connotes the hypostatic union, along with Son of God.

[gtJoey]

Originally Posted by Jerome81

The Son of Man means more than Just that Jesus was a Human being,

Daniel 7:13-14 (RSV-CE)

13 I saw in the night visions,
and behold, with the clouds of heaven
there came one like a son of man,
and he came to the Ancient of Days
and was presented before him.
14 And to him was given dominion
and glory and kingdom,
that all peoples, nations, and languages
should serve him;
his dominion is an everlasting dominion,
which shall not pass away,
and his kingdom one
that shall not be destroyed.

Jesus is applying this title ''Son of Man'' to himself because he is the Messianic figure from Daniel's Vision, Who will come at the time when the forth beast (Rome) is world ruler. He came to usher in and renew the Kingdom which is the fulfilment of the Davidic Kingdom which was supposed to last forever (2 Sam 7:12-14, Lk 1:32-33). Matthew proves in his first chapter (Matt 1:1-17) that God preserved the Davidic lineage even though it looked as though it had ended. All the prophets prophesied about a time when a Davidic ''Branch'' would come from the stump of the Davidic tree which had been cut down, but not totally destroyed (Isaiah 11, Jer 23) to rebuild the ruins of the Davidic kingdom which had fallen (Amos 9:11) This Davidic figure would also be like a New Moses who would lead a new exodus, (Jer 16:14-16, Jer 23, Is 11, Is 43 etc) this new exodus would not be from Egypt, but would involve the ingathering and reunification of the lost tribes of Israel through the Church (This is why he chooses 12 apostles to rule over the 12 tribes Matt 19:28, Lk 22:28-31)

first Jesus establishes this new kingdom then he ascends on the clouds to his Father (The Aincient of Days) in the ascension. where he sits down to rule as King while his apostles go out into the world as fishermen (Jer 16:14-16) to ''Catch men'' (Lk 5:10) into the Net of the Church (Jn 21:1-11) Which should not be torn (Gk Schizo), This is precisely why I am Catholic, because this is the only possible way this can be fulfilled, one net for all the fish from all the tribes and nations, one flock, one faith, one baptism, and we are witnessing this all unfold before our very eyes every time we go to mass and see Jesus ''drawing all men to himself'' (John 12:32), through the cross, the tree of life, the Eucharist. In his cd entitled ''The Last supper and the Lost tribes'' Dr Brant Pitre says: ''Think about the number of people who have taken the eucharist, since the last supper.......BILLIONS!!''

Daniel 7 says ' to the Son of Man was given dominion
and glory and kingdom,
that all peoples, nations, and languages
should serve him;
his dominion is an everlasting dominion,
which shall not pass away,
and his kingdom one
that shall not be destroyed.

This is why Jesus calls himself ''Son of Man'' in Matt 8:20, also, Just 9 verses earlier in Matt 8:11 he says, Many will come from east and west and SIT AT TABLE IN THE KINGDOM with Abraham Isaac and Jacob.

thank you for the clarity and the references. Lots for me to chew on here!! I've got Leon-Dufour's Biblical Theology dictionary, and I think I'll spend some time digging in further tonight.