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  #1  
Old Nov 9, '12, 1:16 pm
JJDILLONUSA JJDILLONUSA is offline
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Default Being sinless, how could Jesus understand what sinning is like?

I know I should know this but upon reflection, if I knew it before I do not know it now.

Here's the question:

Mary was born without sin to conceive Jesus.
Jesus was born without sin.
He was both 100% human and 100% God.

He lived his entire life experiencing life as Man. The bible says he was tempted by the devil in the desert. I am not sure if that means he really considered the tempting offers or not. If Jesus has never experienced sin, the regret, the struggle of trying to rid yourself of the sin.. ie the act of repentance. How can it be said that he has experienced all of what it means to be a human. I am not saying that he would need to fall and commit every sin known to man to understand this. It just seems to me that he would have had to commit at least one sin at sometime in order say he "understands what it means to be human". And if he did.. then what was the need of Mary to be conceived without sin?

Any help would be appreciated.
  #2  
Old Nov 9, '12, 2:51 pm
Fr. Vincent Serpa Fr. Vincent Serpa is offline
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Join Date: May 4, 2004
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Default

Hi,

You are assuming that sinning is essential to being human. But this is not the case. The human race was created to be without sin. Adam and Eve were MORE human before they sinned. Sin makes us less human; not more human.

As for feeling the effects of sin; while Jesus did not sin, He felt the effects of the sins of all of us. He felt more effects than we do. Besides, He designed us and understands what it is to be human much more than we do. Do you honestly think that there is anything we know that God doesn’t know? I think not.

Fr. Vincent Serpa, O.P.
 

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