First, the Bible never teaches that all we need to know is explicit in the Bible. For example, where does it say in the bible that 27 books belong in the New Tesament? Where does it say public revelation ended with the death of the last apostle? Where does it say that we should refer to God as a “Trinity”? Most Protestants believe these, but not on Scripture. The Church (Matthew 18:17) settled the matter.
1) The "brothers" in Scripture have different parents, and the Greek word for brother (adelphos
) includes any friend or relative whom Jesus was not descendant from. "The writers of the New Testament were brought up to use the Aramaic equivalent of "brothers" to mean both cousins and sons of the same father—plus other relatives and even non-relatives." The Bible does not support the idea that Mary had other children after Jesus.
2) The Bible doesn’t give the name of Mary’s mother. The names of Mary’s parents are taken from the following apocryphal writings: the Gospel of the Nativity of Mary, the Gospel of Pseudo-Matthew and the Protoevangelium of James.
3) The Catechism of the Catholic Church
966: "Finally the Immaculate Virgin, preserved free from all stain of original sin, when the course of her earthly life was finished, was taken up body and soul into heavenly glory, and exalted by the Lord as Queen over all things, so that she might be the more fully conformed to her Son, the Lord of lords and conqueror of sin and death."508 The Assumption of the Blessed Virgin is a singular participation in her Son's Resurrection and an anticipation of the resurrection of other Christians....
The Church has never formally defined whether she died or not, and the integrity of the doctrine of the Assumption would not be impaired if she did not in fact die, but the almost universal consensus is that she did die.”
Scripture also tells us that those who suffer with him, will be glorified with him (Romans 8:17). Mary suffered more than all, and so it is fitting that she receives exceptional glory. Mary just received this blessing early. If you were God you would do the same for your mother.
defining the dogma of the Assumption
4) The salutation given to Mary by the angel Gabriel in Luke 1:28 is “Hail, Full of Grace...”. In Greek the word used for grace is kecharitomene
." We can say through the writings of Luke that Mary was the fullness of grace (sinless). How? “Kecharitomene is a perfect passive participle of charitoo
, meaning "to fill or endow with grace." Since this term is in the perfect tense, it indicates a perfection of grace that is both intensive and extensive. So, the grace Mary enjoyed was not a result of the angel’s visit, and was only as "full" or strong or complete as possible at any given time, but it extended over the whole of her life, from conception onward. She was in a state of sanctifying grace from the first moment of her existence to have been called "full of grace." http://www.catholic.com/library/Imma..._and_Assum.asp
No one can be full of grace if there is any trace of sin in that person. In addition, Grabriel gives Mary a new name calling her “Full of Grace”. He says “Rejoice” (Hail!) “Full of Grace”.No where in Scripture is there another address like this.