1 Peter 2:5 - what does a Catholic do with this?

1 Peter 2:5

“you yourselves like living stones are being built up as a spiritual house, to be a holy priesthood, to offer spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God through Jesus Christ.”

What doe a Catholic do with this passage?

All Christians are baptized as priests, prophets, and kings. United to Christ as part of his body, we can offer up our own sufferings and contrite hearts as sacrifices to God, as suggested in other passages, and nowhere is this unity and joining of ourselves and our offerings to Christ and his offering more present than in reception of the Eucharist.

The baptismal priesthood is, however, distinct from the vocational calling of the ministerial priesthood, which is sometimes called the Petrine dimension of the Church.

I like the way Pope Paul VI put it: the priesthood of the laity means that we can “supernaturally speak with God.”

This passage makes the priesthood of believers pretty clear. What passages do you look to for clarity on vocational priesthood?

I pray the Divine Office, for one. I can’t think of any better way of the laity exercising the common priesthood on a daily basis.

Secondarily, all good deeds done out of love for God and neighbour.

Re: vocational priesthood of priests –

Romans 10:14-15 –

"But how are men to call upon Him in Whom they have not believed?

"And how are they to believe in Him of Whom they have never heard?

"And how are they to hear without a preacher?

“And how can men preach unless they are sent?”

Being “sent” by the Church follows upon being called:

Romans 1:1 –

“Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated for the gospel of God…”

He’s talking to the Christians of Rome, who are “called to be saints” (Romans 1:7).

If you are a Catholic convert from a non-denom or other background that uses proof texting and plucking single bible quotes out of the bible, you are going to have to shift your way of thinking.

The Church does not take single verses out of context, or rarely single verses in any context.

The whole of Scripture shows a priestly people AND a ministerial priesthood.

There is no conflict.

I can recommend Section 2, Chapter 3, Article 9 of the Catechism with particular attention to Paragraphs 2 and 4.


Jesus did not hand keys to everyone and He didn’t breath on everyone and commission them giving them authority to forgive or retain sins - only the apostles.

The Church he left(notice he left a Church not a book) had authority Matt 18:17. This authority would not be possible if we all were claiming to be in authority. That’s protestantism where you are your own authority.

We are called to be a holy people who fast and pray, without spot or wrinkle, and that is what Peter is referring to.

Besides the spiritual offerings the laity can offer (prayer, fasting, almsgiving), I would point to a reality that most people miss in relation to the Mass. In the Mass, the collection is taken, and then the collection is received by the deacon/priest. This offering is then placed apart from the altar but in the same vicinity.

It mirrors what Jesus said about quarreling with your brother:

Mat 5:23 “Therefore, if you are offering your gift at the altar and there remember that your brother or sister has something against you,24 leave your gift there in front of the altar. First go and be reconciled to them; then come and offer your gift.”

Note the offering our gifts at the altar. This is corporately in the bread/wine which becomes the Body/Blood, but also in our offering in support of the Church.

Read it, meditate on it, and pray over it. I don’t see a problem here.

Yes I am from a more Baptist type background, and know that I am constantly working on re-learning how to view and think on things. It’s a challenge, but I’ll keep working on it. The up side is I am learning quite a bit in the process!

It’s extremely challenging. I know from experience. :thumbsup:

This Catholic Answers article might help, Is the Mass a Sacrifice?

you have to look at the context of that time period, it is a comparison to the Jewish temple priest hood, which the people have left to follow Jesus as the messiah, so peter was pointing out that

with the Holy Spirit anointing , they now had the keys to the kingdom, as in
Numbers 11:29King James Version (KJV)

29 And Moses said unto him, Enviest thou for my sake? would God that all the Lord’S people were prophets, and that the Lord would put his spirit upon them!

and as saint paul was teaching his church’s the keys to the kingdom was the 9 + gifts of the Holy spirit, the keys to the kingdom – is the power of the kingdom to loose people from the devil control, and bind the devil from returning to destroy the people

which as you can see today, they knew more than the average catholic,

this is also why in romans 12 saint paul said you present you body self as a living sacrafice, so you can prove the good and perfect will of God,

and as 1 John said jesus and his deciples came to destroy the works of the devil

That’s a good question, and there is a lot of exegesis that could be made between the Old and the New Testament. Dr. Scott Hahn has done some talks on the Gospel of John, and I am going to recommend one of those talks having to do with the High Priestly Discourse chapters in John. He’s done a different talk on these chapters that focuses a little bit more on the priesthood, but I could not find it, so this is what I suggest (it takes a little longer to get on topic than the original talk I wanted):


In Saint Paul’s letters to Timothy and Titus, he gives clear instructions on appointing elders and having appointed Timothy himself through the laying on of hands by multiple elders.

But I think one of the clearest indications is simply history. In Clement of Rome’s letter to the Corinthians we have testimony from the late first century. In Saint Ignatius’ letters we have very strong testimony from the earliest days of the second century. This testimony gives witness to a well established structure of bishop, presbyter, and deacons. This structure didn’t come later with Constantine, it’s the order appointed by the apostles.

The allusion to Moses and the Priesthood is interesting. I was going to quote Ignatius, too, but there’s not enough space in this post, and Ignatius wrote about Bishops, Presbyters, and Deacons in pretty much all of his surviving letters. Actually, brief quote.

[quote="Ignatius of Anthioch]See that you all follow the bishop, even as Jesus Christ does the Father, and the presbytery as you would the apostles; and reverence the deacons, as being the institution of God. Let no man do anything connected with the Church without the bishop. Let that be deemed a proper Eucharist, which is [administered] either by the bishop, or by one to whom he has entrusted it. Wherever the bishop shall appear, there let the multitude [of the people] also be; even as, wherever Jesus Christ is, there is the Catholic Church. It is not lawful without the bishop either to baptize or to celebrate a love-feast; but whatsoever he shall approve of, that is also pleasing to God, so that everything that is done may be secure and valid.

D-R Bible, Haydock Commentary:

Ver. 5. You also…a holy[2] priesthood; and, as he saith again, (ver. 9.) a royal priesthood. 1. Because they had ministers of God, who were truly and properly priests, of whom Christ is the chief. 2. Every good Christian in a less proper sense may be called a priest, inasmuch as he offers to God what in a less proper and metaphorical sense may be called sacrifices and oblations; that is, the sacrifice of an humble and contrite heart, (Psalm l.) the sacrifice of self-denials and mortifications, of prayer, almsdeeds, &c. And it is called a royal priesthood, as Christians may be called metaphorically kings, by governing their passions, or because they are invited to reign with Christ in his kingdom, to sit on his throne, &c. See Apocalypse iii. 21. &c. (Witham)

How would you reconcile this with:

1 Tim that describes the type of man to become bishop

The Order of Melchizedek as referenced in Hebrews and the OT

The existence of first century bishops such as Clement of Rome or Ignatius of Antioch

The granting of authority by Jesus in Matthew 28

Not sure of the whole idea here - but as soon as I get to 1 Tim, I go to chapter 3 that says a bishop should be the husband of one wife - which the Catholic Church does not do.

The other thing is I have a Didache RSV bible with CCC notes - and the notes for 1 Peter 2:5 said that we participate as co-redeemer with Christ (going from memory, don’t have it with me, so forgive any error please, and let me know if I am inaccurate.)

How would we be a co-redeemer with Christ?

Historical and bible sources show the existence of a magesterium since the beginning.

Does the passage from Peter conflict with or negate this?

Does the idea that we can pray for each other negate the concept of a magisterium?

I would have to see the direct passages you are referring to, but I am fairly certain they are referring to things like intercessory prayer or the administration of the sacraments in Christ’s church.

Peter was part of the magisterium. He did not give up his own authority given by Jesus.

While most Protestants use this passage to invalidate the priesthood, this makes little sense given the above context.

Am I missing something??? I don’t think my question was about a magesterium.:shrug:

I’ll re-state:

Not sure of the whole idea here - but as soon as I get to 1 Tim, I go to chapter 3 that says a bishop should be the husband of one wife - which the Catholic Church does not do.

The other thing is I have a Didache RSV bible with CCC notes - and the notes for 1 Peter 2:5 said that we participate as co-redeemer with Christ (going from memory, don’t have it with me, so forgive any error please, and let me know if I am inaccurate.)

How would we be a co-redeemer with Christ?

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