1 Timothy - Jesus is God

Blasphemy can only be committed against God.

I thank him who has given me strength for this, Christ Jesus our Lord, because he judged me faithful by appointing me to his service, though I formerly blasphemed and persecuted and insulted him; but I received mercy because I had acted ignorantly in unbelief, (1 Timothy 1:12-13)

Paul, when he was Saul, had blasphemed Jesus. Jesus therefor, must be God.


Jn 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. **
2 He was in the beginning with God;
** 3
all things were made through him, and without him was not anything made that was made.
** 4** In him was life, and the life was the light of men.
** 14** And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, full of grace and truth; we have beheld his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father.

Peace and God Bless

Good Start. Can only agree with you so far.

I certainly agree that Jesus is God, but I’m not sure the Bible always uses the term blasphemy for divine things. Perhaps a counter example is Revelation 13:6 – “it opened its mouth to utter blasphemies against God, blaspheming his name and his dwelling, that is, those who dwell in heaven.”

What do you make of that verse? Does it pose a difficulty for your argument?


You said:

Blasphemy can only be committed against God.

This is posted in the apologetics section so I assume you are asking about this argument in relation to an apologetic.

If I were arguing a point (say with someone who says they affirm the Bible but denies the full Divine nature of Jesus—i. e. a Mormon, or a Jehovah’s Witness), I probably would not use this argument.

They would just retort:

“. . . As you did it to one of the least of these my brethren, you did it to me’ (see MT 25:40), so ANY child of God can be blasphemed.”

Then they would wrongly conclude that 1st Timothy doesn’t support Catholic teaching on the Divine nature of Christ (and they would probably try to erroneously extend this denial to ALL verses that concern Jesus).

They also may bring up CCC 2148 saying: “The prohibition of blasphemy extends to language against Christ’s Church, the saints, and sacred things.”

CCC 2148 Blasphemy is directly opposed to the second commandment. It consists in uttering against God - inwardly or outwardly - words of hatred, reproach, or defiance; in speaking ill of God; in failing in respect toward him in one’s speech; in misusing God’s name. St. James condemns those "who blaspheme that honorable name [of Jesus] by which you are called."78 The prohibition of blasphemy extends to language against Christ’s Church, the saints, and sacred things. It is also blasphemous to make use of God’s name to cover up criminal practices, to reduce peoples to servitude, to torture persons or put them to death. The misuse of God’s name to commit a crime can provoke others to repudiate religion.

Blasphemy is contrary to the respect due God and his holy name. It is in itself a grave sin.79

I think there are other verses that defend the Divine nature of Jesus better although I might use this to shore up other points about the Divine nature of Jesus—but I would not rely on it for apologetics purposes. Just my 2 cents though.

God bless.


Thank you for pointing the verse out. Yes, it does pose difficulty. I am always happy to be corrected. Thank you.

Actually, I first recalled that James said it but later found that it was Paul to Timothy. I could be totally mistaken about the whole thing but recall hearing it from a Jeff Cavins/Great Adventure Bible study.


I don’t know. The Greek word for ‘blasphemy’ (blasphemia) simply just meant ‘badmouthing’ or ‘defamation’; whether to taunt, to calumniate, to hurl verbal abuse, or to curse. It’s true that our modern connotation of ‘blasphemy’ is religious, something that is committed against God, but it wasn’t that specific in Greek as far as I can tell. So just because the word ‘blaspheme’ is used in reference to Jesus is not automatic, irrefutable proof for the divinity of Jesus.

Fair enough. Where is the delete button?


I agree, since biblical Greek uses the term not only for God, but also for things connected with God:
Eze 35:12 And thou shalt know that I am the LORD, and that I have heard all thy blasphemies βλασφημιων in the LXX] which thou hast spoken against the mountains of Israel, saying, They are laid desolate, they are given us to consume.

It is not the argument which I would advise using to try to convince, for example, a JW to believe that the Bible says that Jesus is God.

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