2 John1- 9 what does this section of scripture mean?


is this referring to the gnostics who did not believe Christ was truly man in the flesh or is this a proof for scripture alone?

2 John 1
1The elder unto the elect lady and her children, whom I love in the truth; and not I only, but also all they that have known the truth;

2For the truth’s sake, which dwelleth in us, and shall be with us for ever.

3Grace be with you, mercy, and peace, from God the Father, and from the Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of the Father, in truth and love.

4I rejoiced greatly that I found of thy children walking in truth, as we have received a commandment from the Father.

5And now I beseech thee, lady, not as though I wrote a new commandment unto thee, but that which we had from the beginning, that we love one another.

6And this is love, that we walk after his commandments. This is the commandment, That, as ye have heard from the beginning, ye should walk in it.

7For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist.

8Look to yourselves, that we lose not those things which we have wrought, but that we receive a full reward.

9Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son.

10If there come any unto you, and bring not this doctrine, receive him not into your house, neither bid him God speed:

11For he that biddeth him God speed is partaker of his evil deeds.

12Having many things to write unto you, I would not write with paper and ink: but I trust to come unto you, and speak face to face, that our joy may be full.

13The children of thy elect sister greet thee. Amen.


I’d say the letter is about the truth that Jesus came in the flesh, as opposed to gnostic heresies that he wasn’t a real human, but merely a phantom.


but this post is not implying that scripture is the sloe authority of God is it? I do not see it.


Im not sure what you are asking. 2 John is simply a 1 page letter sent to an elder by John.

It summarizes Christianity and promotes fellowship.


I do not see a case for sola scriptura in 2 John. The closest you could come is verse 9: “Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son.” Except that doesn’t define “the doctrine of Christ” to be “the Bible alone”, but rather refers back to the previous verses, wherein “the doctrine of Christ” could mean the great commandment of love and the fact that Jesus is the Christ and came in the flesh.


I would agree. This minister is taking this verse 9 out of context and thinks this pretext summarizes that the doctrines of Christ equal scripture and therefore scipture alone is the authority, even though we see Paul in 2thess2:15 say it is both written and oral which we are to hold to.


Gee, and he misses v12 which clearly speaks against Sola Scriptura.


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