5 more questions


Hi, some questions again:

  1. The name of God. So does YHWH mean simply “I am”? or does it mean “he who is” or “I am who I am” or what? Anyways how can we not know how it was pronounced (even if the vowels weren’t marked back then), people knowing Hebrew should be able to know how to pronounce the most used verb form ever; don’t we know it from Jewish tradition or the Hebrew language?
    AND - if YHWH was forbidden to say out loud, and when Jesus did, people tried to stone him as commanded in the Torah, then how could people say the most basic sentences (anything with I am) without being stoned to death?

  2. “No one has seen God” - what does this passage mean? haven’t the people in heaven seen God? By the time John wrote this Christians had already died. Jesus has certainly seen God. Even Jacob beheld God face to face (did Moses too?), at least he thought so. And if Jesus was God and we beheld his glory, as John writes, then how come nobody has seen God?

  3. Nobody knows when the moment will come, not even the Son, but only the Father, say Jesus. Ok, Jesus not knowing doesn’t necessarily imply he wasn’t divine because he might’ve been speaking as a human here, but what about the Holy Spirit? If the HS is omniscient then he knows. Either he’s not or Jesus lied. How to solve this?

  4. In one Gospel Jesus says “this is my blood”, in another “this is the new covenant in my blood”. If the absolute historicity of the Bible is to be believed, there’s a contradiction. Can we say that one of the Gospel writers simply remembered it wrong? If the latter version was true, then the real presence is challenged, becase if “this is my body” is to be taken literally, then “this is the new covenant” should be also, but the covenant is an abstract concept so the cup he was holding couldn’t literally be the covenant.

  5. Similar to 4.: in 2 Gospels the centurion who says
    "I am not worthy to receive you" meets Jesus himself, but in one Gospel he sends a person to Jesus. The details in the stories are so similar that they must be referring to the same event. So we must accept that one (or two) of the Gospels isn’t historically accurate. Or?

Thanks! Emil


re your first question. you are looking at it like a 21st century speaker of English. it is not something that can be translated word for word … it is a concept: God is existence, God exists.

we don’t know how words were pronounced then. we can go on how they are pronounced today but that is dangerous. there is nobody alive today that heard hebrew spoken in biblical times.

English has changed significantly in my lifetime - do you think you could travel back in time to Shakespeare’s time and understood much? I doubt it.

Think how much language changes when a land is conquered. the Holy land has been conquered by the hebrews, assyrians, babylonians, persians, greeks, romans, british and probably a million others. each invasion brings with it its own words, concepts, accent, pronounciation, etc. if the language of the conquered people survives it will have absorbed things.

consider: in Jesus’ day the jews spoke aramaic, not the language of the bible - hebrew.


I suggest that you start one thread for each of your five questions. Othewise this thread will soon become incomprehensible from all the different posts that are addressing different issues.

  1. The name of God.



One question per thread, please. It’s easier on everybody.



I was told that the real name of God is only known by very few Jewish scholars, and because of the power of the name, it will never be written down, or spoken. [so ive heard, that in the Garden of Ghetsemeny (sp, sry), when they fell at the sound of Jesus voice, he actually said the real name of God] i was just wnadering what information anyone would have, or anything that might support this theory?


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