A Question for JW's about Michael the Archangel

Reading my New World Translation of the Bible, I found the following passages:

Matthew 3:17 (NWT)
Look! Also, there was a voice from the heavens that said: “This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved.”

Hebrews 1:5 (NWT)
For example, to which one of the angels did he ever say: “You are my son; today I have become your father”?

If Jesus is called “my son” by God, and God has never called an angel His son, then how can Jesus be Michael the Archangel?

Who said Jesus was Michael the Archangel? That’s news to me

Another good thread for me to follow …

That would be every Jehovah’s Witness, friend.

And evidently Melito, Bishop of Sardis.

First, please see that a Catholic Saint called the Son Archangel, Melito, Bishop of Sardis.

Second, you should really read Hebrews 1 in context and the reasons why the Son was not an angel.

DRA Hebrews 1:3 Who being the brightness of his glory and the figure of his substance and upholding all things by the word of his power, making purgation of sins, sitteth on the right hand of the majesty on high: 4 Being **made **so much better than the angels as he hath inherited a more excellent name than they.

The reason the Son is not an angel is not it is said he is a different nature, it is because he inherited a name. The word “made” above in the Douay Rheims is the Greek GINOMAI and literally means “become.” The Son was not always better than the angels.

DRA Hebrews 1:9 Thou hast loved justice and hated iniquity: therefore God, thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.

Who are his fellows? Why his fellow angels!

The passage from Melito does not seem to say what you think it says according to the responses you got in your own thread here:

forums.catholic.com/showthread.php?p=5659666#post5659666

So I ask again: Since the New World Translation of the Bible tells me that:

a) God has never called any angel “my son”, and
b) God has called Jesus His son, then
c) how can Jesus be Michael the Archangel?

Why should I believe this teaching, Dan?

Thanks.

Thanks for quoting from the DR. As a Catholic, I appreciate your effort to quote from a text that I trust.

I want to return the favor by sticking to the New World Translation, okay? As you know, it’s available in full here: watchtower.org/bible/toc.htm

Hebrews 1:6-9 (NWT)
But when he again brings his Firstborn into the inhabited earth, he says: “And let all God’s angels do obeisance to him.” 7 Also, with reference to the angels he says: “And he makes his angels spirits, and his public servants a flame of fire.” 8 But with reference to the Son: “God is your throne forever and ever, and [the] scepter of your kingdom is the scepter of uprightness. 9 You loved righteousness, and you hated lawlessness. That is why God, your God, anointed you with [the] oil of exultation more than your partners.”

Hmmm…it seems v. 9 is saying that the angels may have been Jesus’* partners*, but that is not quite the same thing as saying that Jesus is an angel, is it?

Moreover, doesn’t v. 8 suggest that Jehovah God calls the son “God”?

Dan, I appreciate your help in understanding these things.

Dan:
I had posted in full:

Second, you should really read Hebrews 1 in context and the reasons why the Son was not an angel.

DRA Hebrews 1:3 Who being the brightness of his glory and the figure of his substance and upholding all things by the word of his power, making purgation of sins, sitteth on the right hand of the majesty on high: 4 **Being made** so much better than the angels as he hath inherited a more excellent name than they.

The reason the Son is not an angel is not it is said he is a different nature, it is because he inherited a name. The word “made” above in the Douay Rheims is the Greek GINOMAI and literally means “become.” The Son was not always better than the angels.

DRA Hebrews 1:9 Thou hast loved justice and hated iniquity: therefore God, thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.

Who are his fellows? Why his fellow angels!

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