Dear brothers and sisters,
I have been wrestling intellectually with trying to find a conclusion to how and why Christianity lost its overt Hebraic expression. This overt Hebraic expression now only subsists in Messianic Judaism and Hebrew Catholicism. I wanted to know if this was God’s Will, and why He would have allowed this.
After praying about it and thinking over it I have reached a conclusion. This conclusion provides me with great comfort as I feel it is a good conclusion encompassing Biblical and historical (along with Church) teaching.
However I really want to make sure (as much as I can) that my conclusion is Orthodox. In my following conclusion I have CAPITALIZED key thoughts and/or words that are integral to my conclusion. I hope it is understandable.
Originally, after mankind fell from God, the Lord began His plan of saving the world. He found a man of faith, Abraham our father, and established a covenant with him and his descendents because of his faith. God then progressively revealed Himself to His Chosen ones, which consisted SOLELY of the Israelite people. The way in which He revealed Himself was Jewish in nature. In His Old Covenant He made it so if one wanted to be in full communion with God, then one MUST be a born Israelite or a Gentile convert to Judaism (embracing ALL of the Jewish traditions and customs).
When the “fullness of time came (Gal. 4:4)” Jesus (God in flesh), established a new Covenant. Since Convenants can never be revoked (only abrogated or ammended) Jesus took the Old Covenant and EXPANDED it to include ALL peoples, not just the Jews. This New Covenant abrogated the obligatory nature of the ceremonial customs of the Jews, but retained those things which were established from all time (Ten Commandments and such).
Jesus also took all the old Jewish rituals outlined in Torah and GAVE THEM FULFILLMENT in the sacraments of the Catholic Church, and to a lesser extent the traditions of Catholic Christianity.
In doing this, Our Lord (through His Apostles) established ONE set of true beliefs (orthodoxy) and ONE set of practice (orthopraxis). However, in order to partake of this one faith and practice one no longer needed to be a Jew, practice Torah, be circumcised or whatever. Also this ONE Faith and practice was (since it was stripped of intrisically ethnic concepts) flexible and maleable on non-essential levels.
As the Faith spread this ONE faith and ONE practice took on the cultural patterns of the peoples it encountered. However despite the variety of expressions the Faith and practice was always ONE.
Thus, God’s people which originally consisted on the Jews, was expanded to include ALL mankind. The rituals and beliefs which God originally revealed to the Jews with an obligatory ethnic component, was abrogated and expanded to include a UNIVERSAL set of beliefs and practices that were able to be expressed according to the traditions of ALL mankind.
THUS (thanks for staying with me if you have) it is no longer obligatory to follow Jewish customs, BUT it is not to be condemned either.
Is this conclusion orthodox?
Thanks in advance!
BTW, not sure if this belongs here, so…yeah…