Ver. 22-23. Jesus, … a man, who suffered as man, though he was both God and man. — Delivered by the determinate decree, or counsel; to wit, by that eternal decree, that the Son of God should become man. He mentions this decree, and foreknowledge of God, to signify that Christ suffered not by chance, nor unwillingly, but what God, and he as God, had decreed. (Witham) — By the determinate, &c. God delivered up his Son; and his Son delivered up himself, for the love of us, and for the sake of our salvation: and so Christ’s being delivered up was holy, and was God’s own determination. But they who betrayed and crucified him, did wickedly, following therein their own malice, and the instigation of the devil; not the will and determination of God, who was by no means the author of their wickedness; though he permitted it; because he could, and did draw out of it so great a good, viz. the salvation of man. (Challoner)
Jesus was arrested by the Romans and Jews. He was tried infront of the Jewish Council where he was found guilty and passed on to Pilate (The Roman) who sentanced him to crucifixtion. Romans soldiers actually crucified him.
So, the Jews contributed to his death but the Romans actually did the killing. However, the Jews seemed to have made their decision with knowledge of Jesus being the Christ, though they didn’t believe it.
Why would God use the Jews and Romans to kill Jesus?
Well, I think it’s more that he allowed it to happend than used the Romans and Jews to kill Jesus. We knew from earlier in the bible that Jesus would sacrifice himself by God’s will, so who did it really matters very little. The Jews and Romans carried out God’s will and God allowed it to happen this way because it would create a greater good.
So, IMO, the Jews are not to be vilafied for their involvement as it was God’s will. I believe this is also the view of the Catholic Church.