What exactly does this verse mean? Is Jesus’ lordship a mere creation?
[size=]36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know most certainly, that God hath made both Lord and Christ, this same Jesus, whom you have crucified.
I’m not sure what you are asking here. Can you elaborate a little?[/size]
The use of “make” here, by most theologians that I have read, really is interpreted as “proclaimed” or “exalted”. “Lord” here is “the saving name”, consistent with Acts 2:21 where Luke says “everyone shall be saved who calls on the name of the Lord.” So Luke makes the statement that the Saved Name also belongs to the exalted Messiah. Phil 2:9-11 makes a similar statement, but it’s a little clearer – “God greatly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, that at the name of Jesus every knee should bend, of those in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.”
The verse states that God had made Lord and Christ the same Jesus. Does this mean the lordship of Christ was just a creation of the Father?