My friend who is a non-denominational Christian (who also holds a high respect for the Catholic Church because of Her morals) last night told me that Adultry is ONLY sex with ANOTHER man’s wife, and NOT with another woman even if the man is already married. He said in that case it is called “Harlotry” if the woman is not married. Is this true? I have always thought adultry is when one is married but then has sex with another woman, no matter if the woman is married or not. He claims when Christ spoke of “Adultry” on marriage he was obiviously talking about “any man who divorces his wife and marries another (that would already be married) committs adultry.” There was no need to explain what “adultry” was because the Jews already knew: sex with or marrying another man’s wife.
He claims this is WELL within the Old Testament. He also pointed out that King David had a NUMBER of wifes yet the only one that he committed Adultry with was Bethsheba since she belonged to Uriah. He was NOT saying that it’s not sinful if one had sex with another woman if she was not married, it’s just that the sin is “Harlotry” and NOT adultry.
What do you all have to say to this?