Everytime I hear an argument about the presence of Christ in the Eucharist I always hear a quote from the last supper and never John 6:53-56. Why is that? I think it gives more evidence than the last supper because people can brush off the last supper just saying he was only talking to the deciples.
That part of John is usually the first place I turn to when I’m explaining the Eucharist to someone, especially another Christian.
Maybe our parish is different, but I think we hear a lot of John 6 - the “Bread of Life” discourse. (We sing “I am the Bread of Life” frequently).
One that I think we don’t hear is I Corinthians 11:17-32 - and in particular:
Therefore, whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner will be guilty of sinning against the body and blood of the Lord. A man ought to examine himself before he eats of the bread and drinks of the cup. For anyone who eats and drinks without recognizing the body of the Lord eats and drinks judgment on himself. That is why many among you are weak and sick, and a number of you have fallen asleep.
Isn’t this saying that THIS IS THE BODY AND BLOOD OF CHRIST - and if you just receive communion ‘just because’ you might be guilty of sinning against His Body and Blood???
I always use both together and always point out that the Last Supper was one year after John 6.
Those verses come up in every discussion of the Eucharist I’ve ever been part of. I don’t know how a Protestant can read them and not have a small shudder.