Looking at all of the recent NFP threads, a question has come to mind. So far, all the arguments I have seen are that marriage is for procreation (primarily) and NFP can’t be used as a contraceptive (having sex in the infertile times without the “possibility” of having a child). However, discussions with some close male friends over time have traversed to how some men just simply lose the sexual “urge”, to put it bluntly. So this leads to my question.
I’ll try to phrase it clearly, but please forgive me if I don’t. So the scenario is this: A couple marry at a somewhat young age (30ish), and the man, for example, has a quick and drastic decrease in his sexual drive within a year or so after they are married. This event could be due to hormone changes or even psychological disturbances. Due to his drop in sexual drive, the couple rarely has marital relations, but on the occasion that this drive “returns” it would happen in the infertile time. What would be the moral responsibility of the man/couple? Would the couple need to make an attempt to have children even if the man does not find the proper “stimulation”? Should the man take medication to cause him to come to this point?
Or, should the couple fulfill other purposes of marriage (eg, leading one another to salvation, being helpmates, etc) and wait to see if the sexual drive would “return” even though it may never be within the childbearing years?
I understand that a definitive answer may not be totally possible at this time, but I would be curious of the counsel of others. I also realize that this situation may be extremely random, but I’m sure it may happen.