Another question re: salvation history


Hi again,
It just occured to me (I’m no Bible scholar) that the Jewish people were set aside as a whole to prepare the way of the Lord. But wasn’t there only one tribe that remained faithful, and thus the Lord descended from that tribe? I’d like to pre-figure the church using this if it is accurate. Christ established the One True Church, but the splinters of protestantism are like those tribes of Israel.
Thank again,


When Moses went up to Mt. Sinai to receive the 15, oops, no, 10 commandments from God, all the tribes, other than the Levites, built and worshipped a golden calf.

Prior to this, the oldest son of each family was the priest (This is why we read about the blessing being passed on, usually to the eldest in Genesis). When Moses came down from the Mount, he called all those loyal to him. The Levites were the only ones who remained loyal to God’s words. So Moses replaced the oldest son’s priesthood, with the Levites.

I get a little confused here, because I think one of the prophets mentioned the Messiah would come from the House of Judah (I’ll let someone else take the ball from here). I know Jesus came from the house of David, therefore restoring the kingship. But I’m not sure about the priesthood.

Then you throw in that He would be of the order of Melchizadeck (offering bread and wine).

Any help here?


closed #3

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