I would like to make this clear, I am not attacking Vatican 2, I just have a question about it. I am not looking to condemn Vatican 2, nor set up a war. Please don’t mention the SSPX as that is what usually happens on these types of threads. Admins, please lock this thread if it gets out of hand. If possible, don’t remove it if it does get bad so it can serve as a reminder to those who want to have a similar post. If I am in the wrong category, please move it into the right one.
Whenever I do look to see on whether V2 is infallible (I know it is, but I like to go in depth), but I come across quotes like the following which makes me confused (I still believe Vatican 2 is infallible though)
“Differing from other Councils, this one was not directly dogmatic, but disciplinary and pastoral”. --Pope Paul VI, August 6, 1975, General Audience
“Today we are concluding the Second Vatican Council…But one thing must be noted here, namely, that the teaching authority of the Church, even though not wishing to issue extraordinary dogmatic pronouncements…”
Pope Paul VI, Address of the last general meeting of the Council, Dec. 7, 1965
- “There are those who ask what authority, what theological qualification, the Council intended to give its teachings, knowing that it avoided issuing solemn dogmatic definitions backed by the church’s infallible teaching authority. The answer is known by those who remember the conciliar declaration of March 6, 1964. In view of the pastoral nature of the Council, it avoided proclaiming in any extraordinary manner any dogmas carrying the mark of infallibility.”
Pope Paul VI, General Audience of Dec. 1, 1966
- “Taking into account conciliar practice and the pastoral purpose of the present council, the sacred synod defined as binding on the Church only those matters of faith and morals which it has expressly put forward as such.”
Addendum of Nov. 16, 1964 (alluded to by Paul VI above in quote #3) in the Explanatory Note to Lumen Gentium.
So would Canon 752 come into play?
“While the assent of faith is not required, a religious submission of intellect and will is to be given to any doctrine which either the Supreme Pontiff or the College of Bishops, exercising their authentic Magisterium, declare upon a matter of faith and morals, even though they do not intend to proclaim that doctrine by definitive act. Christ’s faithful are therefore to ensure that they avoid whatever does not accord with that doctrine.”
My second question would be more oriented towards those who reject Vatican 2 (which I do not) Why are the Lateran councils (that proclaimed no dogma or doctrine) infallible, but Vatican 2 isn’t? That is a question that has me wondering about the sedes (not SSPX as +Fellay did say that the SSPX does accept 95% of Vatican 2. I would thing the other 5% is being discussed) since they are the weirdest for their logic.