I heard that Aramaic has no pronouns. The effect of this is they do not have “you”. So when Nicodemus came to Jesus in the middle of the night, and He said, “unless a man be…” it was like saying “unless you be…” . Is this true. And if so what implications does it have when Jesus is saying things like “You will see the Son of Man…” during the trial, or when he says to his disciples “The Son of Man will be handed over.”
I always wondered why/thought it was odd Jesus was referring to himself in the third person (at least in the New Amer. Bible)
So I guess my discussion starter/question is, when Jesus talks in the third person, is that because of the limitations of Aramaic not having pronouns. But then my second question is, if the New Testament was written in Greek, why did it keep the awkward third person wording?