I have been focusing here lately on a late of difficult issues that can be found in ! Corinthians 6:1 ff. (see my other recent posts) Here is yet another:
Are Christians permitted to seek earthly justice for wrongs done to them? It would seem that ffrom this passage (and others), they should never do so. Indeed in 1 Corinthians 6:7, Paul seems to be saying that Christians should rather be done wrong than go to court against each other.
However, one might argue (and is this a valid argument?) that Paul actually here means that Christians should better be the ones having wrong done to them (from the “outside”, from non-Christians) than the ones doing wrong to one another. Indeed, the very following verse, he seems to say as much.
But, again, I ask: DO Christians have the right to seek justice, legal or otherwise, against men, Christian or not, who would do them wrong? Or, rather, should they go (at least in this life) unpunished until God can deal with them? After all, when the disciples want to have fire thrown upon a city for not welcoming them, Christ, as I recall, says to leave room for the wrath of God. We seem in the Scriptures multiple times not to resist evil (and to overcome evil with good). I think also in one of Paul’s (other?) letters, Paul basically advises Christians not to resist evil but to suffer it.
So, apparently, we are not to seek justice in any way for wrongs done to us? Are we not eve to seek justice for wrongs done to others, since they, too, should endure them and not resist evil? After all, if we seek justice for them, then we are enabling their resistance of evil? Are we then even to protest for wrongs done against us and others since, again, we are implying that we should not experience them and, in a sense, resisting evil instead simply of enduring it?
Have we not the right not to suffer in this life? Has we not the obligation to seek earthly justice for others who would do wrong? Indeed, Paul himself states in anotehr passage that civil authorities are there to punish evil and reward good; he says nothing at all against this in this passage. Indeed, does not the mere presence of the Mosaic Law suggest that God is fine with just punishment for sin in this life? Or, though, I suppose we could interpret the Law, as we so often do, as simply symbolic for what is to happen to us in the afterlife? Would this be valid theologically, or no?
Are Christians permitted to seek justice for wrongs either done to them or done to others? Legally? Non-legally? At any time? In any circumstance? I would very much appreciate some help understanding all this.