This question was inspired by this thread on contraception but it’s different enough I felt it should get its own thread.
The title is the main idea behind the thread, but I think I also have several other questions that are part of it:
Is a person with a sexually transmitted disease that is presently incurable (e.g. HIV) required to refrain from sexual relations?
Would a person who contracted a presently incurable STD prior to marriage, regardless of how it was contracted, be able to get married?
Is it morally permissible for a spouse to accept the risk of transmission of disease to self (and possibly children that result from the marriage)?
I know impotence is an impediment to marriage, but in the case of a disease, the sexual act can still be performed (but it would be unwise to do so.) I also know that the risk of transmission can be cut rather significantly even without contraceptives (some of the cocktail therapies for HIV, for instance, are incredibly effective). I also know that “life’s not fair,” as it was stated in the other thread, but a person can be infected by an STD through absolutely no fault of their own, and it seems rough to say to that person, “Too bad this happened to you, now you can’t get married” (though some people are rendered unable to marry by disability - either that prevents the ability to consent or perform the marital act).
I am just mulling this over and am curious to see if there are any answers about this situation in particular. My own perspective as a layperson would suggest that it’s permissible, but not advisable.