Hi, I read a post in answer to a question about sex and a contracepting spouse. As part of the answer, the apologist implied or stated that a spouse has a responsibility to consent or engage in the marital relationship.
To what degree does this apply? If there is difficulty in the marriage and one spouse feels “used” often times by the other (even though they are not contracepting, no infidelity), does the “used” spouse still have an obligation to engage in sex even though they’re not interested? How about if it makes the spouse not like sex even more or feel used even more when the spouse does consent? Where is the line between one spouse’s right to not have sex and the other spouse’s right to sex fall?