My name is Matt, pretty new at this site and to Apologetics as a whole. I’m partaking in a bibly study with some Protestant friends and the topic of faith alone came up.
I found this article by Matt Slick that sums up their position.
Rom. 3:28-30, “For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law. 29Or is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also, 30since indeed God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith is one.”
Rom. 4:5, “But to the one who does not work, but believes in Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is reckoned as righteousness,”
Rom. 5:1, “therefore having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ;”
What would be the best way not only to respond but to understand this issue?
Thank you kindly and God bless!