So, I own two Bibles. I say own, because any others that I’ve ever had are in the care of my parents. Any-who, when I first began taking my faith seriously, I decided that I wanted a nice Bible, one that would last for a long time, and one that could seem kind of like an heirloom (of course not taking precedence over it being the Word of God).
So, I saved up a bit of cash and bought myself a nice leather-bound New American Bible with large print produced by Our Sunday Visitor. Besides being a Bible, it’s a pretty book. It had some interesting translations that kind of bothered me (just because I’m big on language). The one that still sticks out to me was 2 Samuel 11:2
“One evening, David rose from his siesta, and strolled around on the roof of the palace…”
The use of the word siesta just irked me in an English translation, but that’s beside the point. I bought myself another Bible a few years later. This one was a Douay Rheims translation (which I had heard recommended by Jimmy Akin and several other apologists). I like the use of older style language used in this translation, but decided to start with Luke (my favorite Gospel to read) and then go into Acts. One thing I noticed was that in Luke/Acts, the translation uses what would be considered an inappropriate use of the article adjectives “a” and “an.”
As I understand the common rule, one uses “a” when the word being described by the adjective (after the adjective) begins with a consonant sound. In contrast, “an” is used when the word in question begins with a vowel sound. Throughout these two New Testament Books, the article “an” was constantly used before words that would typically require an “a”. Is there a reason for this?