I always get hung up on the “intention” part of the baptismal validity canon:
“Canon 869 §2. Those baptized in a non-Catholic ecclesial community must not be baptized conditionally unless, after an examination of the matter and the form of the words used in the conferral of baptism and a consideration of the intention of the baptized adult and the minister of the baptism, a serious reason exists to doubt the validity of the baptism.”
I was baptized in a Baptist church and my baptism was considered valid when I converted. I am still confused about the intent part because I am fairly sure the pastor who baptized me did not intend the same thing the Church intends. Nor did I intend it. I did not believe in the true nature or effect of baptism at that point. How can that be valid, given the intent of both me and the pastor??