Baptism in Scripture


#1

In some places in the Bible, it speaks about being baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ. Does this mean that they didn’t do it with the trinitarian formula as Christ directed, or something else? This just confuses me a bit…

Examples: Acts 2:38, Acts 8:16, Acts 10:48, Acts 19:5


#2

No, they would have still used the Trinitarian formula. The reason Christian baptism is identified as a baptism in the name of Jesus has nothing to do with the formula that the Apostles used, rather, it’s spoken of in this way to distinguish it from the other ‘‘baptisms’’ that were taking place in the first century such as the different Jewish ceremonial washings (John 2:6) and John’s Baptism. For example, in Acts 19:3-4 we read

And he said, “Into what then were you baptized?” They said, “Into John’s baptism.”


#3

All About a Mikvah (Baptism)explains in detail the significance of a “Mikvah” (Baptism) in the scriptures. Baptism is a powerful thing and it comes right out of the Torah.


#4

There were a variety of baptisms extant at that time, such as the baptisms of pagan cults like Mithraism, John the Baptist's baptism, or Jewish proselyte baptism. So when the phrase "baptize in the name of Jesus" is used, it is simply a synecdoche for "Christian baptism." In other words, these passages are not setting forth the formula but distinguishing "Christian" baptism from others.

When the command to baptize is given in Matt 28:19, they are told to do so "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit." This is also known in a shorter label as baptized "in the name of Jesus" in Acts.

See this Catholic Answers tract also.
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Historical references to Baptism in Jesus name vs. The Holy Trinity
#5

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