Baptize in the name of who specifically?


#1

OK, this has been bothering my brother for quite some time, and I couldn’t help him.

We all know that Jesus said to baptize “in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit”. Matt 28:19.

But several times in Acts, the Apostles Baptize in “the name of Jesus Christ” only, neglecting “the Father” and “the Holy Spirit”.

So my brother’s friend, a Unitarian Pentecost, claims that Jesus is God, in one person - no Trinity. If you point out that Jesus was sent by “Whom?”, you’re just wasting your time. He just keeps questioning, why did our first Pope get this major point wrong. Isn’t this a False Teaching, he asks.

Can you help two brothers in need?

Thanks,

Notworthy


#2

I dont know what the first pope said but look at what Jesus says about returning that no one knows when He will return only the Father knows and the Son does not.

And Jesus also speaks of Jesus going to the Father at Pentacost and sending the Holy Spirit. Surely one wouldnt want to leave out the Holy Spirit in the Trinity?

Does this help?


#3

OK, you know there’s a Trinity, and I know there’s a Trinity, and that Jesus said, “Baptize in the Name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit”.

But Peter in Acts 3, said “Repent, and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ”.

Why did Peter (our first Pope) use the wrong formula? This is repeated several more time in Acts.

On a side note, our friend states the Church institued the Trinity in the Baptism formula at Niceae in 325. I’ve shown him the error of his ways, as indicated in the Didache.

Notworthy


#4

First, remember that when you are reading the Bible, you are not reading a transcript, you are reading a description of actions. They are not specifying what actual words they were saying, they simply state they were baptising in the name of Jesus. This is more for clarification to show that these were indeed Christian baptisms as compared to John the Baptists baptisms, or any of the pagan baptisms.

There is a good article here.

catholic.com/library/Trinitarian_Baptism.asp

and here

newadvent.org/cathen/02258b.htm


#5

This is the point that I was going to make. The bible never indicates that the “Jesus only” formula was used when someone was BEING baptised, it just indicates that this was a way it was referred to when talking ABOUT baptism. Your friend would need to show scriptural president that, after Pentecost, the Apostles ever directly disobeyed a specific command of Jesus’. Unless he can do that he’s clearly imposing him own meaning upon the text.

In Christ,
Nancy :slight_smile:

[quote=gelsbern]First, remember that when you are reading the Bible, you are not reading a transcript, you are reading a description of actions. They are not specifying what actual words they were saying, they simply state they were baptising in the name of Jesus. This is more for clarification to show that these were indeed Christian baptisms as compared to John the Baptists baptisms, or any of the pagan baptisms.

There is a good article here.

catholic.com/library/Trinitarian_Baptism.asp

and here

newadvent.org/cathen/02258b.htm
[/quote]


#6

now we are getting somewhere :thumbsup: thanks lil brother!!:


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