First of all, I strongy affirm the use of pouring as a valid method of baptism.
Nonetheless, I am wondering if a common argument used to defend pouring is flawed. It revolves around Acts 2:41, when 3,000 were baptized in a single day in Jerusalem. It has been stated (even by Catholic Answers) that this is impossible. Does anyone have any conrete evidence of that for my reference?
I’m wondering because I know the temple mount complex was designed to include a complex of ritual baths. These were available to purify the overwhelming crowds that flocked to Temple and Jeruslem on feast days like Passover. It seem all too possible that 3,000 could have been immersed in that space, especially since they had all day. (All indications in Acts 2 are that the baptisms begun at 9 AM). Likewise, the Pool of Bethesda (215 x 190 ft.), and the Pool of Siloam (50?x50?) were located within the city. I don’t know, it seems plausible to me that it could have been done entirely by immersion. Does anyone else have any ideas? Should we avoid using this argument? (lol… I’ve always used it, I’m rather reluctant to leave it, but I’m more interested in the facts I guess.)