Because of the forgiveness of sins previously committed,

What did Paul mean when he used the sentence marked below? Would be happy if you could explain to me what that sentence means.

ROM 3:21-30

Brothers and sisters:
Now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law,
though testified to by the law and the prophets,
the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ
for all who believe.
For there is no distinction;
all have sinned and are deprived of the glory of God.
They are justified freely by his grace
through the redemption in Christ Jesus,
whom God set forth as an expiation,
through faith, by his Blood, to prove his righteousness
because of the forgiveness of sins previously committed,
through the forbearance of God–
to prove his righteousness in the present time,
that he might be righteous
and justify the one who has faith in Jesus.

What occasion is there then for boasting? It is ruled out.
On what principle, that of works?
No, rather on the principle of faith.
For we consider that a person is justified by faith
apart from works of the law.
Does God belong to Jews alone?
Does he not belong to Gentiles, too?
Yes, also to Gentiles, for God is one
and will justify the circumcised on the basis of faith
and the uncircumcised through faith.

Romans 3:21-30

Douay-Rheims 1899 American Edition (DRA)

"21 But now without the law the justice of God is made manifest, being witnessed by the law and the prophets.

22 Even the justice of God, by faith of Jesus Christ, unto all and upon all them that believe in him: for there is no distinction:

23 For all have sinned, and do need the glory of God.

24 Being justified freely by his grace, through the redemption, that is in Christ Jesus,

25 Whom God hath proposed to be a propitiation, through faith in his blood, to the shewing of his justice, for the remission of former sins,

26 Through the forbearance of God, for the shewing of his justice in this time; that he himself may be just, and the justifier of him, who is of the faith of Jesus Christ.

27 Where is then thy boasting? It is excluded. By what law? Of works? No, but by the law of faith.

28 For we account a man to be justified by faith, without the works of the law.

29 Is he the God of the Jews only? Is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also.

30 For it is one God, that justifieth circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith."

I chose this version to see if you could find it clarifying,
but Jesus died for our sins, including past ones that have been repented. I think this is what is meant. God’s mercy is evident in forgiving both past and present sins, including (repented) sins chronically earlier than His sacrifice. His sacrifice redeems not just those who live in the past two millennia but also good and repentant sinners from past ages.

Your quoted texts have been used to demonstrate a belief in justification by faith only without good works. If you are seeking clarification of that question on this text alone, I can give you texts like Philippians 2:12-13, Galatians 6:7-9, Luke 6:45-49 which amongst others demonstrate that God requires our faith and good works. This is also addressed explicitly and significantly in James 2: 14-24.]

Paul was writing to Christians, each of which had been baptized, removing and cleansing of all prior sin. This points to the necessity of the Sacrament of Penance for the remission of post-baptismal sin. As we see in 2 Corinthians 2:10, Paul forgave post-baptismal sin in the person of Christ, as an ambassador for Christ, and with the authority of Christ.

the apostle shews that the Jews cannot be truly justified, and sanctified by the works of the written law of Moses only; that a knowledge of sin, or of what is sinful, came by the law, but if they did not comply with the precepts of the law, this knowledge made them more guilty. Now, at the coming of Christ, the justice of God, that is, the justice by which he made others just, and justified them, cannot be had without faith in Christ, and by the grace of our Redeemer Jesus Christ, whom God hath proposed to all, both Gentiles and Jews, as a sacrifice of[3] propitiation for the sins of all mankind, by faith in his blood; that is, by believing in him, who shed his blood and died for us on the cross. It is he alone, (v. 26.) that is the just one, and the justifier of all. And as to this, there is no distinction. The Gentiles are justified and sanctified without the written law, and the Jews who have been under the law, cannot partake of the justice of God, that is, cannot be justified, sanctified, or saved, but by the faith and grace of Christ Jesus. S. Paul does not pretend that the virtue of faith alone will justify and save a man; nothing can be more opposite to the doctrine of the gospel, and of the apostles in many places, as hath been observed, and will be shewn hereafter. He tells us in this chap. (v. 20. and 28.) that man is justified without the works of the written law: and he teaches us, that no works of the law of Moses, nor any works that a man does by the law of nature, are sufficient to justify a man, and save him of themselves, that is, unless they be joined with faith, and the grace of God. And when he seems to say, that men are justified or saved by faith, or by believing, as he says of Abraham in the next chapter, (v. 3. and 5.) he never says (as some both ancient and later heretics have pretended) that faith alone is sufficient. And besides by faith, he understands the Christian faith and doctrine of Christ, as opposite to the law of Moses, to circumcision, and the ceremonies of that law, as it evidently appears by the design of the apostle, both in this epistle and in that to the Galatians. He teaches us in this epistle (c. ii. 6.) that God will judge every man according to his works: (v. 13.) that “not the hearers of the law,” but the doers, shall be justified. See also c. vi. He tells the Galatians (c. v, v. 6.) that the faith, by which they must be saved, must be a faith working by charity. He also tells the Corinthians (1. vii. 19.) that circumcision is nothing, nor uncircumcision, but the keeping of the commandments of God. That though a man should have a faith, that so he could remove mountains, it would avail him nothing without charity. How often does he tell us that they who commit such and such sins, shall not inherit or possess the kingdom of God? Does not S. James tell us, that faith without good works is dead?

PS: this is not mine…but a good commentary I read.

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