What I wrote above:
Matt. 10:42 - And whosoever shall give to drink unto one of these little ones a cup of cold water only in the name of a disciple, verily I say unto you, he shall in no wise lose his reward.
What is more likely the correct punctuation:
Matt. 10:42 - And whosoever shall give to drink unto one of these little ones a cup of cold water, only in the name of a disciple, verily I say unto you, he shall in no wise lose his reward.
Based on the companion verse:
Mark 9:41 - For whosoever shall give you a cup of water to drink in My name, because ye belong to Christ, verily I say unto you, he shall not lose his reward.
Now, I’m wondering if it would even be correct to give water ‘in a disciples name’…Mark’s verse just rings as more faithful to Christ’s teachings.
I’ve just started reading a book, “The Five Gospels” by Robert Funk et al, where it states (p. 10): “Most scholars have concluded that Matthew and Luke utilized Mark as the basis of their gospels, to which they added other materials.”
Perhaps Matt. 10:42 is one of those verses taken from Mark that wasn’t copied faithfully/understood fully?
Just found another supporting verse:
Heb. 6:10 - For God (is) not unrighteous to forget your work and labour of love, which ye have showed toward His name, in that ye have ministered to the saints, and do minister [to others].