Book of revelations

Why does the North American Bible (Catholic) have Jesus saying this:

"To the angel of the church in Sardis, 2 write this: " 'The one who has the seven spirits of God and the seven stars says this: "I know your works, that you have the reputation of being alive, but you are dead.

Be watchful and strengthen what is left, which is going to die, for I have not found your works complete in the sight of my God.

I know in some translation it is different, but why is Jesus saying my God in the Catholic Bible, or is this even him talking?? I have had trouble understanding revelations on these parts. I appreciate the help :slight_smile: (By the way I am not contesting the divinity of Jesus, as I am a faithful Catholic.)

It is Jesus speaking, based on the description of the speaker in Rev. 1 (“I am the Alpha and Omega”, with a crown, etc).

This is not the first time Jesus calls the Father “my God”–he does the same right after his own resurrection:

“Jesus saith to her: Do not touch me: for I am not yet ascended to my Father. But go to my brethren and say to them: I ascend to my Father and to your Father, to my God and to your God.” (John 20:17)

He’s not denying his own divinity (the fact that Jesus is God is apparent, considering he’s just risen from the dead!). He’s just recognizing the Father’s role, IMO.

The Revised Standard Version also says “my God”
Rev 3:1 "And to the angel of the church in Sardis write: The words of him who has the seven spirits of God and the seven stars. "I know your works; you have the name of being alive, and you are dead. 3:2 Awake, and strengthen what remains and is on the point of death, for I have not found your works perfect in the sight of my God.

Jesus also used the expression “my God” while He was alive on earth.
John 20:17 Jesus said to her, “Do not hold me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to my brethren and say to them, I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.”

As to why He would refer to the Father (First Person of the Trinity) as “my God”: one thought is that both times He is making the statement in His incarnate state.
In John, this is obvious as He is physically alive and present in a human body when He speaks.
In the letters to the various Church’s in Revelations, it is made clear when He identifies Himself as one who had “died” (Rev 1:17-19 below). He identifies Himself specifically as united with His risen human body.
1:17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. But he laid his right hand upon me, saying, "Fear not, I am the first and the last, 1:18 and the living one; I died, and behold I am alive for evermore, and I have the keys of Death and Hades. 1:19 Now write what you see, what is and what is to take place hereafter.
IMO, it is in the context of His human nature that He speaks of “my God”.

The Father is true Father of the Son. All perfections of created parenthood find their source in the divine Father. Just as human father’s are the image of God to their children so is Jesus’ father God to Him.

BTW, the Greek has “my God”. I’m not aware of any different English translations. Would be interested to know of any alternate translations.

To correct an error in my previous post: The John 20 passage was after Jesus’ death and resurrection, not prior to it.

Thanks for the help, that really cleared that up. I think the translation was a protestant one; I will try to find it. I guess a good way to put it would be that Jesus was talking in his human nature, as opposed to his divine nature. God Bless.

If I can still throw my cent here (no, I’m afraid the other one fell into the gutter :p):
As Nita pointed out, most of the Greek manuscripts we possess does have Theou mou ‘my God’ in it: it is only in the Textus Receptus where the pronoun is absent. Plus, if I may point out, this is not the only place in the chapter where Christ uses ‘my God’ (Revelation 3:12):

He who is overcoming, I will make him a pillar in the sanctuary of my God, and he shall go out more; and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem, which comes down out of the heaven from my God, and my new name.

This is not entirely relevent to the question, but for the sake of clarity:

The name of the biblical book is actually “The Book of Revelation,” singular, with no ‘s’ at the end. It is also called “The Apocalypse.”

Why does the North American Bible (Catholic) have Jesus saying this…

You may be referring to the Catholic **New **American Bible.

Woops, thanks

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