I am familiar with the scriptural defense of the title of Father for our priests etc., so please don’t provide info about that. I am after help on the subtler issue of the prudence of the use of the Father title in light of the plain statement in the scriptures that that we are to “call no man father”. What I mean is, you would think that the Church would have anticipated that eventually heretics would attempt to use that scripture to attack the Church ("…it’s so simple; why does the roman church have to take such a simple statement and turn it into such a complicated issue…").
Why didn’t the Church just keep it simple and avoid the Father title and use something else.
To try and answer my own question, I am guessing that the term Father must have been widely in use long before the Canon of the New Testament was defined (or even long before a precise Canon would become deemed as necessary). Any more thoughts for me on this?
Thanks in the name of Jesus the Lord!