[quote=Dr. Colossus]Vatican I stated that “The Roman pontiff, when he speaks *ex cathedra *. . . possesses through the divine assistance promised to him in the person of blessed Peter, the infallibility with which the divine Redeemer willed his Church to be endowed in defining the doctrine concerning faith or morals”
The pope speaks *ex cathedra *“when, acting in the office of shepherd and teacher of all Christians, he defines, by virtue of his supreme apostolic authority, a doctrine concerning faith or morals to be held by the universal Church.”
For the pope to define something infallibly, it must be made perfectly clear by his pronouncement that he is defining a doctrine of faith or morals.
They have not been infallibly defined by the Church. They are, however, infallible. What I said was that these doctrines have been the constant teaching of the Magisterium. Most of the doctrines taught by the Church have never been infallibly defined, because the need has not arisen to do so. They are nevertheless infallible because the Church has always affirmed them.
again the same qestion as before:
how do we know what exactly is infallible?
is there a special formula or set of words in the text which shows that it is ex cathedra on faith and morals; or is one to understand that from the content of the text? (that would make it open to debate, wouldn’t it?)
also, with so much stuff about contraception and several other catholic doctrines flying around, don’t you think it’s time the church went ahead and made some ex cathedra pronouncements on the topics? or am i just being too hasty?
hope you don’t mind, i’m trying to understand here
thanks in advance