Needanswers. Celibacy is NOT “unbiblical”.
CCC 1619 Virginity for the sake of the kingdom of heaven is an unfolding of baptismal grace, a powerful sign of the supremacy of the bond with Christ and of the ardent expectation of his return, a sign which also recalls that marriage is a reality of this present age which is passing away.116
CCC 1620 Both the sacrament of Matrimony and virginity for the Kingdom of God come from the Lord himself. It is he who gives them meaning and grants them the grace which is indispensable for living them out in conformity with his will.117 Esteem of virginity for the sake of the kingdom118 and the Christian understanding of marriage are inseparable, and they reinforce each other:
Whoever denigrates marriage also diminishes the glory of virginity. Whoever praises it makes virginity more admirable and resplendent. What appears good only in comparison with evil would not be truly good. The most excellent good is something even better than what is admitted to be good.119 [/INDENT]
TxGodfollower. You said (bold mine):
(From post 10)
the Scripture seems clear that bishops are required to be married
(From post 4)
Also, the passage from Timothy seems pretty clear on the requirements for a bishop, and they include married (1 Timothy 3:2) and having kids (verse 4).
You were giving everybody on this thread your private interpretation of 1st Timothy 3:2b and 1st Timothy 3:4b.
1st TIMOTHY 3:1-5 1 The saying is sure: If any one aspires to the office of bishop, he desires a noble task. 2 Now a bishop must be above reproach, the husband of one wife, temperate, sensible, dignified, hospitable, an apt teacher, 3 no drunkard, not violent but gentle, not quarrelsome, and no lover of money. 4 He must manage his own household well, keeping his children submissive and respectful in every way; 5 for if a man does not know how to manage his own household, how can he care for God’s church?
So if a man cannot have children, does his sterility disqualify him from the Bishopric (because after all, if he were sterile, how can he be “keeping his children submissive”)? Is that what you are saying?
FIVE possible interpretations of 1st Timothy 3:2a (Now a bishop must be . . . the husband of one wife)
If this Bishop is married, no more marriages (ONE wife and ONE wife ONLY) but this doesn’t mean he has to have one wife MINIMUM. People who have had more than one wife (even for licit reasons—such as the passing of his first spouse) are not to be considered for the Episcopacy or Bishopric.
If this guy wants to be a Bishop, he MUST get married first.
Wife/schmife. You not only don’t need a wife, you don’t even need to be a man. A Bishop can be a woman.
The guy who is a Bishop not only doesn’t need a wife, but he can have a homosexual partner or “husband”.
The Bishop can have many “wives”.
Your answer is number two.
Other Bible-only interpretations include number three.
Yet other Bible-only interpretations include number four.
Some present-day Mormon offshoots who say they are following the Bible (among other writings), say a Bishop should have MORE than one wife.
But the Catholic Church has held to number one above for 2000 years.
CCC 1618b . . . .From the very beginning of the Church there have been men and women who have renounced the great good of marriage to follow the Lamb wherever he goes, to be intent on the things of the Lord, to seek to please him, and to go out to meet the Bridegroom who is coming.114
Why should I believe you and answer number two. Or why should I believe Bible groups that assert number 3 or 4? Or the groups who hold to polygamy (number 5)?
Incidentally. If you don’t think St. Paul was a Bishop, WHY was he ordaining men? Why would he have ordained Timothy (the man from which letter you quoted was sent to) by the laying on of hands?
St. Augustine in the 300’s repented from his concubine situation but he never had a wife. Why did none of the other Bishops figure out your tradition’s prohibition and condemn St. Augustine at the Council of Carthage or Hippo?
What do you think “virginity for the sake of the Kingdom” is?
Why would Jesus live out a virginal life?
Why would St. Paul call virginity a “better way”?
Is the “one wife” aspect a “minimum” as you would say, or a “maximum” which the Church, history, and others say (and fits with the live of Jesus and St. Paul).
When the Book of Revelation talks about people who “follow the lamb wherever he goes” we both know, St. John wasn’t talking about “trail hiking”.
The people who “follow the lamb wherever he goes” was in the context of virginity.
REVELATION 14:4 (New Jerusalem Bible) These are the sons who have kept their virginity and not been defiled with women; they follow the Lamb wherever he goes; they, out of all people, have been redeemed to be the first-fruits for God and for the Lamb.
TxGodfollower. In your paradigm, concerning the people described in Revelation 14:4 who “follow the lamb wherever” Jesus went, . . . . should these people be out of consideration for the Bishopric or the Episcopacy?
Hopefully these questions that are immediately raised from the traditions of men and interpretations you seem to be holding fast to, helps provide insights as to WHY this interpretation of 1st Timothy 3 is implausible if not impossible.