We all know that Luke 1:28 usually gets translated “full of grace” or “highly favored one.” I don’t have a Greek NT, but my understanding is that the Greek word here is kecharitomene. However, all the Lexicons (like Strong’s) use Charitoo. Why? What’s the difference? Are they the same word or different words, or is Charitoo an abreviated form of Kecharitomene or what?
Please only answer if you really really no Greek. No amateur opinions please. Thanks.
passive voice = the action is done to the subject, rather than the subject performing the action.
perfect tense = the action (to grace, to favour) was done at some point in the past, but the effect continues to the present.
participle = the verb is used in another role, in this case, as an adjective, modifying a noun.
vocative case = the word is used as a form of address.
With this analysis, it’s clear that neither “favoured one” or “full of grace” fully captures the richness of the Greek.
Greek is a highly inflected language – that means that words take on different forms (i.e., changes to the word in the form of prefixes, suffixes, etc) in order to reflect the grammatical way the word is being used in a sentence.
So, in a lexicon, the most basic form of the word is used (that way, you only have one dictionary listing, and not three hundred, for the word!). For verbs, that form is:
‘charitoo’ is precisely that form: written like that, it means “I grace”.
‘kecharitomene’, as porthos has pointed out, is a participle. Its base form is ‘charitoo’, so that’s what you find when you look it up in a lexicon.