I don’t exactly understand somethings concerning the Imaculate Conception, Mary, and her free choice to conceive Jesus.
So, Mary was conceived without original sin. What does that mean in specific terms? Does that mean that she COULDN’T sin or she was born without DESIRE to sin, sin didn’t appeal to her?
(Excuse the way I post, my question follows a certain train)
My religion book says that our true end is to do the will of God. Any action that leads us to this end is a good action, and any action that leads us away from this end is an evil action, therefore a sin.
God wanted Mary to conceive Jesus, therefore, it was His will.
According to this train of thought, if Mary had chosen not to conceive Jesus, she would have sinned.
If she COULDN’T sin, or was born with no natural DESIRE to sin, it was only natural for her to agree to conceiving Jesus, and God did not actually give her free will in this choice…
As you can tell, I’m a bit confused. If anyone can give me an answer here, that would be great!! If not, I’ll just have to consult the AAA board… Thanks for listening!!!