Contraceptive Sex vs. Homosexual Sex/Sodomy

I would like someone who is pro-contraception yet opposed gay marriage to explain to me the difference between contraceptive sex, homosexual sex, and/or sodomy within marriage.

You won’t find anyone. It would be illogical to be pro-contraception yet against homosexual acts. It is the same basic principle, though they differ slightly.

Acceptance of contraception obviously has been instrumental in homosexuality gaining support in Western culture. They key element in the acceptance of both is the divorce between sexuality and reproduction.

That said there are indeed disordered elements in sodomy and homosexuality which are not present in contraception, so in principle I could see acknowledging the wrongness of one but not the other.

Specifically, in sodomy (heterosexual or homosexual) the wrong orifice of the receiving partner is used. In homosexual acts, a person of the wrong sex is made the object of one’s sexual activity. Neither element of disorder is present in common heterosexual contraceptive acts.

The immorality isn’t the wrong orifice being used per se, it is the inherent sterility of the acts which contraception tries to achieve. In terms of desired ends it is the same thing. One might think that since it is not 100% effective that it in fact is different, but that is in some ways similar to saying “well it wasn’t rape because the perpetrator was impotent”

I don’t fall into your qualifier group but there is a difference.

Contraception takes something that is rightly ordered (marital sex) and introduces an element that perverts it. It turns a “good” into a “bad”. Removing the contraception turns it back into a good.

Homosexual sex does not have that initial quality of being rightly ordered or a good. Nothing has been added to make it wrong and nothing can be changed to make it right.

Sodomy within marriage is another category altogether. It is more like mutual masturbation than either of the above two examples.

Thanks for your responses. I’m asking the question because so many of my non-catholic acquaintances seem oblivious to the parallel between contraceptive sex and homosexual acts. Unfortunately, this is something I myself have only recently fully realized. I want to know if I brought it up to them what kind of brain acrobatics they may use to convince me that there is actually no connection.

I’m getting tired of witnessing to protestants wag their fingers at gay marriage activists and then go home and “mutually masturbate” with their spouse thinking there is no way it could be offensive to God.

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