Contraceptives when birth is impossible?


Hi – If a woman has had several dangerous miscarriages, and she’s been told by her doctor that bringing a baby to term will be most likely impossible, may she use contraceptive birth control to prevent pregnancy?


No. She may not.

She may use NFP, Natural Family Planning. Which is periodic abstinence. Or she can abstain completely.


NFP is a very viable option. I know the argument is “What if it doesn’t work?” The main reason it will not work is if the couple does not follow the rules correctly. My husband and I went 2 years without conceiving on NFP (due to financial restraints.) The one month we slacked on charting I got pregnant…Our Lord is so funny.

Everyone has a cross to bear…Some people are born with homosexual attractions, some are blind, some with anger problems, etc. This woman and her husband may have to abstain more than the average couple, but some good always comes out of suffering and she must look to the Lord for comfort and peace.


Although I am not against birth control, one should be worried about the things they put in their body.

NFP is a much safer way to go about it. :smiley:

Sorry about your miscarriages. :frowning:


I wish i had a nickle for all the times i heard the story about the well-born child after a Dr claimed that a live birth was impossible, or the child that is fully formed and mentally ok after a physician said the child had no limbs or brain.

With God all things are possible, and humans are fallible. Keep the faith.:thumbsup:


Yes, and contraception isn’t full proof, either. I used to interpret and sometimes helped out with a women’s center. I can only assure you there was no lack of women who got pregnant who WERE using contraception, the pill, etc. One woman in particular comes to mind. She was telling me how she didn’t think this was even possible, to get pregnant while using the pill! She assured me she WAS using it, but got pregnant even so.


Do you mean YES she can use contraception? Because my understanding is that the catechism says only for severe medical purposes…not to prevent pregnancy. In this case she would be using it to prevent pregnancy and then that pregnancy would cause the medical problems.


its not that the medical purpose must be severe, its moreso that infertility must be an unintended side effect, it cannot be the goal.


Yes, thank you for that clarification. My wording does not always come out the way I imagine it in my head.:slight_smile:


If the only or prime reason to use a contraceptive is to prevent pregnancy then the answer is no it is never permitted.


I have always been told that even to achieve a good, you cannot use a wrong to get there. :confused:


Its not wrong to use hormones for medical reasons, for example, even if those same hormones can also have a contraceptive side effect, so long as the contraceptive side effect is unwanted. Its called the principle of double effect, very different from using an evil means to achieve a good end. That is never permitted.


Compendium issued by Pope Benedict XVI

  1. When is it moral to regulate births?


The regulation of births, which is an aspect of responsible fatherhood and motherhood, is objectively morally acceptable when it is pursued by the spouses without external pressure; when it is practiced not out of selfishness but for serious reasons; and with methods that conform to the objective criteria of morality, that is, periodic continence and use of the infertile periods.

  1. What are immoral means of birth control?


Every action - for example, direct sterilization or contraception - is intrinsically immoral which (either in anticipation of the conjugal act, in its accomplishment or in the development of its natural consequences) proposes, as an end or as a means, to hinder procreation.


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