Agreed, but, since the OP (at the time) had not mentioned ‘consent’, nor the faiths of the two parties to the marriage, and since they DID mention sacramental graces after the overcoming of the addiction, that is why I said we could NOT really answer until it was clarified, which they have now done. It could easily, for example, have been about mortal sin at the time of marriage but that wasn’t specified either (at the time). I think all of us have given some helpful responses based both on original speculations about the context and on the clarified context.
I meant speculation as to the meaning of the OP’s question which was originally not clear. At the time we could speculate they meant consent OR we could speculate they meant mortal sin, and without more info re the two parties, we would not know about the likely appropriateness of convalidation…what if they were both already catholic for example? To be fair, my first response, after nobody had responded to the OP for 6 hours, did encourage more info and admitted to me opting for one possible meaning, but I don’t believe anything I said was incorrect in its own context.
Illness is not an impediment to marriage unless it is concealed, causes other impediments.
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