I am trying to understand the culpability of a husband who has [otherwise licit] conjugal relations with his wife who as an intrauterine device (IUD) inserted.
Can anybody explain the bold parts below?
What would constitute a grave reason for cooperating in the sin of the other spouse? Does this just mean that he can only have relations when he is really, really, aroused, or am I missing something?
I understand that it is a more serious sin to use an abortifacient than to use a condom, but shouldn’t we evaluate the question of cooperation in evil in both cases? Unless I am wrong, either it is a licit or illicit cooperation in evil in the situation I stated. The husband would be committing a grave sin regardless of whether the IUD is abortifacient or not. Again, maybe I’m missing something.
VADEMECUM FOR CONFESSORS CONCERNING SOME ASPECTS OF THE MORALITY OF CONJUGAL LIFE
- Special difficulties are presented by cases of cooperation in the sin of a spouse who voluntarily renders the unitive act infecund. In the first place, it is necessary to distinguish cooperation in the proper sense, from violence or unjust imposition on the part of one of the spouses, which the other spouse in fact cannot resist.46, 561).] This cooperation can be licit when the three following conditions are jointly met:
- when the action of the cooperating spouse is not already illicit in itself;47
- when proportionally grave reasons exist for cooperating in the sin of the other spouse;
- when one is seeking to help the other spouse to desist from such conduct (patiently, with prayer, charity and dialogue; although not necessarily in that moment, nor on every single occasion).
- Furthermore, it is necessary to carefully evaluate the question of cooperation in evil when recourse is made to means which can have an abortifacient effect.48