Scripture tells us that Jesus came to “break the power of him who holds the power of death–that is, the devil”.
I have been reading “The Mystical City of God” by Mary of Agreda and a certain logical conclusion hit me, namely, that if Mary had inherited original sin (or committed sin) then logically speaking, Satan could certainly boast victory over God to a certain degree, for not only having temporal domination over the mother of God, but superiority as well, because Mary would have succumbed to the Devil’s wiles by sinning i.e. she would have been infected by sin innate in all fallen souls, inherited since the time of Adam and Eve, due to the triumphal plot of the Devil. Moreover, Jesus, the God-Man, as per the 5th commandment, (if true about Mary, mother of God) had to obey/honor His mother i.e. subject Himself to the will of a sinful mother if she was in fact subject to the power of Satan, and she was if she was a sinner. Does it seem reasonable to conclude that God would allow such a thing, knowing, of course that nothing is impossible for God i.e. God certainly did not need Mary, the mother of God to be pure i.e. God could have accomplished His divine Will even if the mother of God was in fact dominated by the Devil.