Denial if the Papacy - Heretical?


If you deny the immaculate conception it’s a heresy.
If you deny biblical cannon it’s a heresy.

When one denies the existence of the papacy (such as in the case of the Orthodox Church) is it also heresy? To me it seems that it is but I’ve also heard statements that oppose that. I don’t know about any official declaration. So how is it? And why?

Thank you!


Yes, it is.


They don’t deny the existence of the Papacy as such - they deny that the Pope has supreme authority and is infallible on his own. Papal Infallibility is certainly a dogma Catholics are bound to.

Mind you they don’t hold to the Immaculate Conception either.

Make of these facts what you will.


Vatican I was a good old dogmatic council with canons and definitions binding under penalty of anathema. It is certainly heresy to contradict any of the definitions of Vatican I.



But in this case, why is Orthodoxy not considered as heretical when it’s based around the denial of the papal authority (thus the schism)? I hear that a lot and then the wikipedia article said the same thing. I know that wiki nor site members don’t represent the Vatican, but is this true? What is the official stance?

I don’t know much on this subject so I hope this question isn’t too stupid and the answer too obvious.

God bless!


Eastern Orthodoxy is both schismatic and heretical. Don’t let our friendliness with them fool you.


I honestly think the reason may be that for hundreds of years, our theologians were used to calling the Greeks schismatics, and the custom stuck. The dogmatic definitions of Vatican I didn’t occur until eight hundred years after 1054. Also, it’s possible that some on our side might have considered it overkill to add the H word to the schismatic label…


The Orthodox do not deny the existence of the Papacy. They do however deny the “Primacy of the Bishop of Rome” over the Eastern Catholic Church. This is a schismatic issue, similar to the SSPX.



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