While listening to the first message of the Holy Father to the Church and to the World, I was was under the impression that the translator quoted him as saying something which sounded very much like the words of absolution.
Did His Holiness in fact extend general absolution during his first message to those listening to him?
And if general absolution was tendered–would this have been applicable ONLY TO THOSE PHYSICALLY PRESENT at Vatican City that day?
Or would I, as someone listening to His Holiness live via radio have also been a beneficiary of such a formula of general absolution?
(Obviously–for those who are unfamiliar–one who receives general absolution is free to receive the Eucharist, on condition of sincere contrition and the firm purpose to go to a proper confession at their earliest convenience. It was frequently abused in the 1970’s and is now rarely done at all. Someone more-knowledgeable can elaborate more fully).
Thanks for any responses clarifying what I thought I heard. Yeah, as soon as I heard His Holiness’ words, I recited an Act of Contrition, an Our Father, and a Hail Mary, as a sort of provisional way for receiving the absolution if that was what I was hearing. BUT–I think I remember, somewhere, that it is impossible to receive absolution, or any other sacrament remotely.
So my prayer was sort of “Lord, if this is efficacious, please apply it to me, if not, thank You anyhow”.
Tried to get an answer from the apologists, but no response as of yet. So am trying again, here.