In John 10:30, Jesus tells the Jewish crowds that “I and the Father are one.” Subsequently, the crowds the pick up stones to kill him, citing blasphemy. They say: “We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God”. (John 10:33).
Jesus responds with this: “, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods”’[d]? 35 If he called them ‘gods,’ to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be set aside— 36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’? 37 Do not believe me unless I do the works of my Father. 38 But if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father.” 39 Again they tried to seize him, but he escaped their grasp.”
Did Jesus here say he was only “god” in the sense of the gods in Ps. 82.6? Is he saying he is only a special one of these “gods”, and not the Eternal God of the universe? Any help on this very confusing passage?