Did Jesus write in the sand?


#1

I’ve read that there is little textual evidence for John 7:53-8:11. Does the Church have a position on this?


#2

Try reading that section with the belief that Jesus was writing their sins on the ground.


#3

Well in the KJV it clearly states he did write on the ground. (John 8:6)

So I guess the answer is yes he did.


#4

[quote=Madia]Try reading that section with the belief that Jesus was writing their sins on the ground.
[/quote]

Interesting interpretation, and one that I’ve never heard before…thank you for sharing that.

I have heard speculation that He may have been writing the Law of God on the ground (as in the tablets), which would have accused them of their sins, but not quite the same, is it?

Mike


#5

I think he’s asking whether or not those verses should be included in the Scriptural text of the Gospel of John.

You know how many Bibles have a little footnote there saying “Many ancient manuscripts do not include 7:53-8:11” or something like that.

Kind of like in I John 5:8, there’s issues with that. Like, maybe it was a gloss in the text. There’s a statement about that in Denzinger, I think in the Pius X section or around that time, where he made several statements based upon the Pontificial Biblical Commissions’ research into things like that, including Paul’s authorship of Hebrews.


#6

the footnotes in my bible states the following:

The story of the woman caught in adultery is a later insertion here, missing from all early Greek manuscripts. A Western text-type insertion, attested mainly in Old Latin translations, it is found in different places in different manuscripts; here, or after 7, 36, or at the end of this gospel. There are many non-Johannine features in the language, and there are also many doubtful readings within the passage. The style and motifs are similar to those of Luke, and it fits better with the general situation at the end of Lk 21, but is was probably inserted here bbecause of the allusion to Jer 17, 13 (cf the note on 8, 6) and the statement, “I do not judge anyone,” in 8, 15. The Catholic Church accepts this passage as canonical scripture.
I have also heard with regards to what was being written, that it was the sins of those who were condeming the adulterous woman (and that their sins were comparable). But, as to where the text came from originally, the specifics appear to be questionable, except that they were inspired. This much, due to the fact that the Church knowingly includes it in the Canon of the bible, we know to be true.

Just my two cents on the subject,

CARose


#7

[quote=trumpet152]I’ve read that there is little textual evidence for John 7:53-8:11. Does the Church have a position on this?
[/quote]

I have never heard any doubts at all that this event occurred.

John is a reliable source, too. He is probably the youngest Apostle, and knew Jesus personally.

One of the questions which arises respecting inserted material is, Was it removed from the original text, and then later RE-inserted?

Differences in language are not necessarily significant. John, like other inspired Sacred Authors of the Bible books, was a “borrower.” The beginning of John’s gospel sounds like it was borrowed from one of the holy books of India!!!


#8

I have also come across similair notes, but I have found some that state that in many of the texts missing the story, their is a blank space where it should go that is large enough for the text of the story. Sorry, I don’t have the reference here with me


#9

“Don’t they get it yet?”


#10

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