Did Judas Iscariot partake of the Blessed Eucharist?


What saith ‘Sacred’ Tradition and the Magisterium?


They saith nothing for certain that I know of.

Remember, even if he did receive, it can only ever have been worthily, with Judas sinning only afterward.

Remember too that it was only AFTER Jesus handed him the morsel of bread (presumably not the Eucharist, as it was dipped in something else, and sounds like it was later in the meal) that Satan entered into him, so it’s not to say Judas was even in sin at that point.


Note that Judas made his deal with the chief priests [Matthew 26:14-16]prior to the Last Supper [Matthew 2620-25]. In Matthew the question “Is it I?” [Matthew 26:25] occurs before the institution of the Eucharist [Matthew 26:26-29]; also in Mark 14 verses 17-21 versus 22-25. In Luke 22 it is the other way around verses 21-23 versus 19-20.

One notes that Matthew, and maybe Mark were eyewitnesses while Luke is gives a summary of accounts and may be less exact on the sequence.

Re Mark as an eyewitness: I have heard that Mark was a teenager at the time and that the Last Supper was held in his parent’s house. While he may not have partaken of the Supper, he was likely listening at the door. He may have followed them out to Gethsemane and been the young man who fled naked [Mark 14:52]. Note that he is the only one who relates the incident.


**The Baltimore Catechism **


  1. Q. Who were present when Our Lord instituted the Holy Eucharist?

A. When Our Lord instituted the Holy Eucharist the twelve Apostles were present.

So Judas was present correct?


Allow me to share my fallible opinion on this. :slight_smile:

Clearly, Judas commited **a mortal sin **when he agreed to betray Jesus.

But before giving him the Eucharist, **Jesus cleansed him **of this mortal sin by washing his feet. Look what the scripture says,

"Peter said to him, “You shall never wash my feet.” Jesus answered him, “If I do not wash you, you have no part in me.” Simon Peter said to him, “Lord, not my feet only but also my hands and my head!” Jesus said to him, “He who has bathed does not need to wash, except for his feet, but he is clean all over; and you are clean, but not every one of you.” For he knew who was to betray him; that was why he said, “You are not all clean.” (John 13:8-11)

So according to me, Jesus cleansed Judas of his mortal sin before giving him the Eucharist. In this case, Jesus forgave Judas even though Judas had not repented. Judas however, did not give up his evil intentions and therefore, when he received the Eucharist, Satan entered into him.


I thought confession to a priest and penance is the only way to have a mortal sin forgiven?

Since when does washing of feet forgive ANY sins?

Please show me in the Catholic Catechism paragraph and page number-thanks.



Since when does washing of feet forgive ANY sins?

It looks like that’s iaskquestion’s personal view. I am not him so I can’t really answer for him.

Please show me in the Catholic Catechism paragraph and page number-thanks.

See above.

Also the CCC isn’t the only handbook for the Catholic faith.


Forget it, people, this guy just loves to try and bait people.


Well, Jesus did call us to be “Fisher’s of men”:smiley:


So the bottom line is that Judas did partake of the Eucharist as attested to by Holy Scripture and the Baltimore Catechism which I presume carries the Imprimatur and Nihil Obstat, although I haven’t checked that out.

Fact 1) Judas ingested the body, blood, soul and divinity of Christ.

Fact 2) Satan entered Judas after he partook of the Blessed Sacrament

Fact 3) 2 Corinthians chapter 6:

14 Be ye not unequally yoked together with unbelievers: for what fellowship hath righteousness with unrighteousness? and what communion hath ***light ***with darkness?
15 And what concord hath Christ with Belial? or what part hath he that believeth with an infidel?

Perhaps you Bible believers can exegete these two verses for me if the Eucharist truly is Jesus Christ.


It’s my personal viewpoint. It’s not Catholic teaching.

Jesus forgave in many ways. He said to the paralysed man, “Your sins are forgiven.” Clearly the paralysed man had made no confession. Also, take the example of the woman who washed his feet. He forgave her even though she had not made a “confession” with her lips.

So I think Jesus, by the symbolic act of washing Judas’ feet, forgave him his sin. Again, that’s my opinion, not the Catholic Church’s opinion. You’re free to disagree.

How else could you interpret the word “clean”. Jesus said that washing his disciples’ feet because not all of them were clean. Now I don’t think Jesus meant physical cleanliness. It had to be spiritual cleanliness. So I think that by washing Judas’ feet, Jesus forgave him.


Going by that verse, tell me, why did Jesus choose Judas as his disciple then???

“Jesus answered them, “Did I not choose you, the twelve, and one of you is a devil?” He spoke of Judas the son of Simon Iscariot, for he, one of the twelve, was to betray him.” (John 6:70-71)

If he knew that Judas was unrighteous why did he give him fellowship? I think Jesus chose him in order to warn us of the fact that there will be false disciples among us.

“Take heed to yourselves and to all the flock, in which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to care for the church of God which he obtained with the blood of his own Son. I know that after my departure fierce wolves will come in among you, not sparing the flock; and **from among your own selves **will arise men speaking perverse things, to draw away the disciples after them.”
(Acts 20:28-30)

In the same way, Jesus could have given him the Eucharist to demonstrate what happens to the man who does not believe in the real presence of Christ in the Eucharist.

“Whoever, therefore, eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord **in an unworthy manner **will be guilty of profaning the body and blood of the Lord. Let a man examine himself, and so eat of the bread and drink of the cup. For any one who eats and drinks **without discerning the body **eats and drinks judgment upon himself. That is why many of you are weak and ill, and some have died.” (1 Cor 11:27-30)


hath righteousness with unrighteousness? and what communion hath ***light ***with darkness?
15 And what concord hath Christ with Belial? or what part hath he that believeth with an infidel?

Perhaps you Bible believers can exegete these two verses for me if the Eucharist truly is Jesus Christ.The catechism says he was present…it does not say that he partook.

Moreover, even if he did partake, it would simply be another sin.

How would any of that in any way impugn the validity of the Eucharist.

There are plenty of people who are professing Christians who have fallen into sin of some kind. How does that impugn the Christian faith?

It doesn’t, does it…

Else, why would 1st John 1:9, James 5:16, and John 20:33-23 be in the New Testament?

Your scripture reference is out of context and has no relevance to this incident. The context applies to intermarriage with unbelievers.


Yes it does.

But it clearly states that Christ cannot/should not have concord with Belial.

How can the Body and Blood of Christ be in the same physical body as Satan?

The obvious answer is He can’t, that being the case Judas had the fruit of the vine and unleavened bread in his belly and NOT Jesus Christ!


So are you saying that those among us who receive the Eucharist in a state of mortal sin (and there are those who do), do NOT receive the body and blood of Christ?

What happens to it? Is it somehow “untransubstantiated” when it hits the mouth of such a person? Have you ever heard of such a teaching? I haven’t.

1Corinthians 11:27-30 states that those who receive the Body and Blood of the Lord unworthily DO receive it, but they are guilty of profaning it. So your answer is not obvious, because it clearly contradicts what is written about it in this passage of Scripture.


Satan entered into him after he received the Eucharist and not before. When Christ gave the Eucharist to Judas, Satan was **not present **in Judas.

But Judas did not discern the body, and as a consequence, **brought judgment upon himself **(1 Cor 11:29-30). He **fell from the state of grace **and only then did Satan enter into him.

Where did Christ have concord with Belial? Satan entered into Judas after receiving the Eucharist and not before.


I have never really looked into this question, though I have thought about it. On one hand I remember passages that say Judas left the meal to go meet up with the Pharisees to betray Jesus. On the other hand I remember a passage (in John, I think) that says something to the effect: Jesus said whomever I hand this piece of bread to will betray me, and handed it to Judas.

Was this before the actual Eucharist or during? I havn’t looked into it enough.


I always saw the washing of the feet being about service.
Showing us that we are never too good to lower ourselves to serve others.

Can’t say I’ve ever thought of the washing of the feet as a forgiveness of sins.



The dipping of the bread is earlier in the Seder than the point at which Jesus instituted the Eucharist. The leader dips a piece of bread and gives it to another it is a sign of special favor.


When Jesus Himself does the washing, and He does it for that very purpose.
He’s like that.

Please show me in the Catholic Catechism paragraph and page number-thanks.

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