Did Mary suffer concupiscence?


Since Mary was born without original sin, did that mean she did not experience the desire of unnatural things (concupiscence)? Wouldn’t that would have made it easier for her to be holy and sinless?


Mary was not just born without original sin, she was conceived without original sin. Since concupiscence is a consequence of original sin, it follows that Mary did not have concupiscence. While it is true that a lack of concupiscence does make it easier to entirely avoid sin, it does not mean that Mary was not tempted. She very well could have been tempted to sin. We know this because Scripture explicitly states that Jesus, who also was without original sin and its consequent concupiscence, was tempted and overcame temptation (Heb. 4:15). If even Jesus, who is God himself, suffered temptation, it is possible that Mary did also.

DISCLAIMER: The views and opinions expressed in these forums do not necessarily reflect those of Catholic Answers. For official apologetics resources please visit www.catholic.com.