I have been challanged by a protestant that the Church in the past has forbid laity from posessing any part of the Bible and he gave the following sources:
“Canon 14. We prohibit also that the laity should not be permitted to have the books of the Old or New Testament; we most strictly forbid their having any translation of these books.”- The Church Council of Toulouse 1229 ADSource: Heresy and Authority in Medieval Europe,Scolar Press, London, Englandcopyright 1980 by Edward Peters,ISBN 0-85967-621-8, pp. 194-195
The Council of Tarragona of 1234, in its second canon, ruled that:
“No one may possess the books of the Old and New Testaments, and if anyone possesses them he must turn them over to the local bishop within eight days, so that they may be burned…”- The Church Council of Tarragona 1234 AD; 2nd Cannon - Source : D. Lortsch, Historie de la Bible en France, 1910, p.14.
“Opened on Thursday alongside the Inquisitionarchives was the infamous Index of Forbidden Books, which Roman Catholics were forbidden to read or possess on pain of excommunication. They showed that even “the Bible” was once on the blacklist. Translations of the holy book ended up on the bonfiresalong with other ``heretical’’ works…The Indexof Forbidden Books and all excommunications relating to it were officially abolished in 1966. The Inquisitionitself was established by Pope Gregory IX in 1233…”-Vatican archives reveal Bible was once banned book By Jude WebberROME, Jan 22, 1998 (Reuters)
I know there has got to be a logical explaination for these quotes. Can anyone shed any light on this?