I was reading this thread on AAA forums.catholic.com/showthread.php?t=64951
and I would like to know what the difference here is between the two. Can someone give some examples of this?
I’m confused on this paragraph
“It is true that, objectively speaking, a person who is a Catholic is objectively bound by Catholic marital law. However, the Church reasonably understands that someone who has formally left the Church because of a defect in that person’s faith or understanding cannot be reasonably expected to follow Catholic marital law. Because marriages among non-Catholics are presumed valid (and sacramental if both parties are baptized), those marriages of former Catholics are also presumed to be valid/sacramental if the conditions for a valid/sacramental marriage among non-Catholics have otherwise been met. Lapsed Catholics, on the other hand, have not left the Church and so are expected to follow the ecclesial disciplines necessary to assure the validity/sacramentality of their marriages”
So if all marriages are considered valid, what would be the difference of someone getting married in the Catholic Church vs any other Church?